Nothing you have reported about Dr. Wallace's view conflicts with my grammatical anaylsis of that passage. "chosen to/for salvation" is a legitimate translation. However, nothing you or Dr. Wallace can say that changes the grammatical fact that the term translated "salvation" is found in the accusative case - the well known case of termination of action that is commonly used for the direct object and in this text is its obvious use. Nothing you or Dr. Wallace can say that changes the grammatical fact that "through (dia) sanctification by the Spirit and belief of the truth" modifies "salvation."
I presented hard contextual evidence it refers to justification not salvation in general, and so where is your evidence to the contrary?????? None! Zilch, Nada!
.
First, this text is found in the context of experiential salvation rather than God's eternal purpose of salvation. Second, He is describing their current condition as opposed to their previous condition. So, you are forcing into the text your own opinions which are totally false.
1 Thessalonians 1:4-5 and 2 Pet. 1:10 both clearly teach what you claim is aburd! Both teach that a current child of God can know they are of God's elect which means that a child of God can either be ignornat of their election or can have doubt about their election.
You know very well the order repudiates your view. Purpose stands first (v. 28) just as a blue print stands first with a builder of a house which explains foreknowledge of every door, window, light socket, every aspect of that house BEFORE it is built and thus election according to the foreknowledge of God rests upon God's eternal purpose not merely as some bystander who looks into a crystal ball and foresees faith and then elects which is irrational as faith is a gift of God rather than something merely foreseen in sinners.
How were we chosen, by the sanctifying work of the Spirit.
On what basis were we chosen, through faith in the truth.
No need to respond to your false claims concerning non-germane citations.