The ONLY reason I am returning to this thread to post is because (imo) Cassidy has put forth what I consider a biased view of what the Scriptures teach.
It is (imo) important that readers and posters are presented with a more factual account than given.
I am NOT going to go into other Scriptures, but rely totally upon that Cassidy offered, and make (imo) the corrections to the view he presented.
Please, folks, I highly regard Cassidy, and am not desiring to draw swords with him, rather I am attempting to bring a bit of balance to a thread that seeks (imo) to excuse.
No. It was wine. The "it was grape juice" argument is an argument without any merit.
Only because YOU deem it without merit. There is NO Scripture support for such a statement.
The Greek word translated "wine" is (οινος, οινουo, οινω) oinos, which was the common Greek word for normal wine, wine that was fermented/alcoholic.
This is mere smoke and mirrors, Cassidy. You and I both know that the Greek word does not distinguish between that which is fermented and that which is yet fermented. One must always consider the context for how the word is used.
The Greek word for the wine Jesus created is the same word for the wine the wedding feast ran out of.
The Greek word for the wine Jesus created is also the same word that is used in Ephesians 5:18, "...do not get drunk on wine..." Obviously, getting drunk from drinking wine requires the presence of alcohol.
Everything, from the context of a wedding feast, to the usage of oinos in 1st century Greek literature (in the New Testament and outside the New Testament), argues for the wine that Jesus created to be normal, ordinary wine, containing alcohol.
There is simply no solid historical, cultural, exegetical, contextual, or lexical reason to understand it to have been grape juice.
You are supposedly relying upon such arguments and contentions, but frankly, the historical / cultural records of the ancients were mostly written by folks who found pleasure in perverted religions in which intoxication and excess were part of the worship.
There are thirteen original Hebrew and Greek words for "wine" in our English Bible. How can we know which one means fermented wine? To find the answer, do not go to Aristotle or Pliny, but go to the Bible itself. By comparing its usage, the scriptural meaning of wine can be defined.
Which you have not done, but make a blanket statement at all "wine" in the Scriptures is fermented.
At least you are correct that the ONLY determiner is actually "its usage, the scriptureal meaning of wine can be defined."
One of the original Hebrew words for wine is "yayin." This word is first used in Genesis 9:21 where Noah "drank of the wine and was drunken." This wine caused drunkenness! Was it just grape juice? Uh, no!
In Genesis 14:18 we read of Melchizedek – a type of Jesus Christ, or possibly even a Christophany – who "brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the most high God." God Himself, in the person of Melchizedek, gave wine to Abraham. And again, the original Hebrew word was "yayin" which always means fermented wine. This same Hebrew word is used in Amos 9:14 speaking of the coming Millennium where the people will "plant vineyards, and drink the wine thereof." They will drink the same kind of wine that Noah drank and became drunk by overindulgence.
The Hebrew word meaning is: grape, wine, fruit of the vine. There is NO mark indicating the fermentation or alcoholic state.
In CONTEXT used for Noah certainly it is used as a fermented beverage because of the end result.
The word
may not carry that meaning in the context found in Genesis 14:18, nor in Amos 9:14.
Certainly, it might, and it just as well could not. Depends on what the reader "reads into" what is read.
In the New Testament, one original Greek word for wine is oinos. Proof that it is alcoholic is given in the story of the good Samaritan. The Samaritan poured oil and wine on the man’s wounds (Luke 10:34), showing that the wine had enough alcoholic content to be used as an antiseptic. Would you pour grape juice on a wound?
The Greek word oinos is also used in John 2 where Jesus turned water into wine by a divine miracle. It is used in 1 Timothy 5:23, the command of Paul, "Drink no longer water, but use a little wine for thy stomach’s sake and thine often infirmities." This Greek word is also used in Ephesians 5:18, "And be not drunk with wine wherein is excess."
If God wanted to say "grape juice" He would have done so, just as He did in Acts 2:13 "Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine."
The words "new wine" are translated from the Greek word γλευκους (gleukos).
God is not an idiot. Had He wanted to say "grape juice" he would have said "grape juice" (γλευκους), but He didn't. He said (οινος) fermented, alcoholic wine, just like Paul cautioned about in Ephesians 5:18, "And be not drunk with wine . . . " (οινω).
This is really strange, Cassidy.
Here (Acts 2) you have the heathen claiming that the folks are drunk and specifically on "new (sweet) wine." Yet you contend that is "grape juice!"
You are most inconsistent and contending for a view that is one sided.
If you are going to go to the languages, then it is wise to state accurately that one must always place the use of the drink in context to determine the meaning. Unlike many other words, the use of wine in the context of one verse does not always carry the meaning and weight to other verses.