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Where does Scripture say that He "partook"?
You're making a very large assumption. And obviously they DIDN'T know and that's why they accused Him of doing something He had not done.
This really doesn't mean much when you look at how Jesus turned the Jewish law and culture upside down.
It is much easier for him to put us on "Ignore" than to deal with his statements. He was called out concerning those statements and did what so many do. He turned tail and ran.
As my dad used to say, "If you can't run with the big dogs you better stay on the porch." In Calypsis4's case it seems he has retreated under the porch.
Don't you mean Dr. Kavorkian?Nurse! STAT!!!
Was He a Jew?
Let's see the verses again from Luke 7
For John the Baptist has come eating no bread and drinking no wine, and you say, ‘He has a demon!’ The Son of Man has come eating and drinking, and you say, ‘Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and sinners!’
Clearly they saw Him eating and drinking. They would not accuse him of being a drunkard had He not actually partaken in wine.
The Lord did drink wine, but it was not fermented. The charges against Him were false by those who hated Him. Are you going to trust their word in the matter? Will you also agree with His critics that He was a 'gluttonous man'?
The Lord never created intoxicating liquids nor did He ever drink intoxicating liquids. He referred to it as 'the fruit of the vine' (i.e. grape juice).
Fermented beverages have undergone a process of putrefaction/degeneration/decay. In other words it becomes 'rotten' in time.
Was He a Jew?
Let's see the verses again from Luke 7
For John the Baptist has come eating no bread and drinking no wine, and you say, ‘He has a demon!’ The Son of Man has come eating and drinking, and you say, ‘Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and sinners!’
Clearly they saw Him eating and drinking. They would not accuse him of being a drunkard had He not actually partaken in wine.
He actually turned the culture but not the Law. He followed the law perfectly. He then went on to fulfill the law in His death and resurrection.
I'm going to go with what Jesus said - He ate and drank but was not a glutton or a drunkard. If Jesus were just drinking juice, how could they accuse Him of being a drunkard? They couldn't.
I'm sorry but the fruit of the vine is wine - alcohol and non. When we read the account of the wedding feast, there is no other conclusion we can come to except Jesus made alcoholic wine.
This makes no sense. They INCORRECTLY accused Him so how do we conclude HE was drinking wine from their incorrect assessment?
I think I mentioned this before but I'll mention it again. If I squeeze orange juice fresh, I consider that the good orange juice. But if I leave it out for a few days it will start to go bad and get a very strong taste to it.
The same thing could have been said about the water turned into "wine". The best would be the freshly squeezed juice and not the rancid, strong tasting juice that had been allowed to sit and ferment.
Just a different thought.
I wonder which old dead theologian was the first write about non-alcoholic grape juice? Does anyone have any idea?
If Jesus were just drinking juice, how could they accuse Him of being a drunkard? They couldn't.
The switch from wine to grape juice probably occurred sometime after Thomas Welch perfected the process of pasteurization to prevent the fermentation of grape juice.I wonder which old dead theologian was the first write about non-alcoholic grape juice? Does anyone have any idea?
The wine that Jesus made was the common drink at such a feast. Wine mixed with water at a 4 or 5 to 1 ratio in order to make the water safe to drink and to avoid drunkenness.
Because it was common practice to put out the best wine (mixed with water) first, then, later to use the wine (mixed with water) that was more sour due to it starting to turn to vinegar.If the wine that Jesus made was "the common drink at such a feast" why was his called "the good wine" by the master of the feast? Not the "inferior wine?"
I'm going to go with what Jesus said - He ate and drank but was not a glutton or a drunkard. If Jesus were just drinking juice, how could they accuse Him of being a drunkard? They couldn't./The same way that they dishonestly accused Him of being a glutton. Was He? Do you really agree with their charges against Him?
I'm sorry but the fruit of the vine is wine - alcohol and non. When we read the account of the wedding feast, there is no other conclusion we can come to except Jesus made alcoholic wine.
You are totally wrong. Furthermore, you are merely giving an opinion. I said it earlier, but He who was holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners DID NOT create intoxicating drinks ....for it He had done so (i.e. at Cana) then He would have been guilty of causing the wedding guests to get even more drunk (or become drunk) after they had already had their fill of what was available. But there is a biblical curse on those who do that. Habakkuk 2:15, so Jesus could not/would not have done such a thing at Cana nor anywhere else.
No. He called it the 'fruit of the vine' on purpose as to distinguish between what is the pure juice of the vine and that which has been corrupted by fermentation. Friend, how in the world do people get drunk in the first place? By drinking grape juice(?)...or by drinking that which has decayed into an intoxicating liquid?
A putrefacation? I don't think so. Think of it more like refining.
You don't think so. Again a mere opinion. Once again, you are in error. Fermentation and putrefaction are the same thing and that involves far more than just wine. Documentation:
Quote: "These decompositions of nitrogenous material in which products of extremely objectionable character and of vile odor are frequently formed are generally grouped under the general name 'putrefaction' or 'putrefaction fermentation'. In some instances, particularly in aeorbic bacteria, oxidation processes are carried out in which these offensive substances are formed in but small amounts and to these frequently the term 'decay' is given while the stronger term 'putrefaction' is reserved for the anaerobic fermentations..."
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1089464/?page=1
If the wine that Jesus made was "the common drink at such a feast" why was his called "the good wine" by the master of the feast? Not the "inferior wine?"
Because it was common practice to put out the best wine (mixed with water) first, then, later to use the wine (mixed with water) that was more sour due to it starting to turn to vinegar.
As they had used up all the wine, the early wine which was sweet, and the later wine, which was sour, the newly made wine tasted good, even better than the first wine served and stood in stark contrast to the later, sour, wine.
OK, thanks for the explanation. Is it your belief the wine that Jesus made was merely grape juice or fermented (though diluted)?