DHK,
If you're trying to point out the fact that Scripture is inherently authoritative, I agree. I don't know how many times I've acknowledged this point. I agree with you. Where I think you're mistaken isn't on that particular point. Where I think that you're mistaken is in imagining Scriptura to be the sole, final authority for all matters of faith.
If it is the greatest authority, then it is the final authority. It is God's inspired word, and therefore the greatest authority that we have. I admit that we have access to other sources, but none so great and final as God's revelation to mankind.
To suggest that something is a non sequitur is not to speak directly to the question of a point's relevance to a given topic. To say something is a non sequitur is simply to say that a given set of premises do not logically lead one to a given conclusion. To suggest the presence of a non sequitur is to say that someone has made an unjustified philosophical leap from one lily pad to another. The first lily pad (The Authority of Holy Scripture) is one thing. The second lily pad (The Sole Authority of Holy Scripture) apart from its practical problems, represents an unBiblical, illogical leap... a non sequitur. The fact that Scripture is God-breathed, authoritative, quoted by Christ, quoted by the Author of Hebrews, etc. does not inexorably lead one to accept the conclusion that Sola Scriptura is a divinely-revealed Christian doctrine.
First it is quoted by Christ, and therefore authoritative.
Second, it is stated in God's revelation to mankind that it is inspired, and therefore authoritative.
Therefore, the use of Scripture is not a "non sequitor."
a conclusion or statement that does not logically follow from the previous argument or statement.
It does have a logical conclusion. If both Christ used it as authoritative, and the Holy Spirit through the Word declares it to be inspired and therefore authoritative, it is a logical conclusion to say that the Word of God is indeed authoritative. That in no way is non sequitor, a conclusion that has nothing to do with the previous statements.
Further, you're once again so fixated upon the Scriptures that you're looking right past Christ, their Author. This leads you to say things like "They appealed to scripture because scripture is the authority." Again, Jesus is the Authority.
Correct. How do we know Jesus
today? It is only through His Word. Those who think they can know him in other ways are very much mistaken.
He uses Scripture rightly simply because He's God. Satan uses it wrongly. We, too, can wrongly interpret or misapply Scripture. Christ is the Eternal Word made flesh, however. Therefore, when He speaks, whether or not He's quoting Scripture, He does so infallibly. One writer by the name of Jimmy Akin puts it more succinctly than I could when he says "This kind of verse (which cites Christ referring to Scripture) can be validly used to prove that the Old Testament has doctrinal authority, but it cannot be used to prove sola scriptura since Jesus does not say that only the Old Testament has doctrinal authority (in which case we would have a sola Old Testament doctrine)." In other words, you're demanding from the text a conclusion which it does not imply.
No, I am not. Your stated opinion here is that I am wrong in my interpretation of scripture. If so show me where I am wrong using Scripture.
You avoid the command of Scripture:
2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
--If I study the scriptures, pray, and ask for guidance, the Lord will give me the correct interpretation. Most of those here agree with my interpretation. Why is that? The Spirit of God dwells in them. Most of them also disagree with the interpretation of the RCC. Why is that? We don't believe that the Spirit of God dwells in them that formulated the Catechism and most of the beliefs of the RCC. Thus the RCC is either a cult or a major religion of the world that is outside of Christianity preaching what Paul says "another gospel."
For that matter, the author continues "Jesus citing the Old Testament to prove a particular doctrine shows only that Jesus considered that doctrine to be provable by that passage of the Old Testament. It does not show that he considered all doctrines to be provable by the Old Testament or by Scripture in general. And so it is no surprise when we see Jesus sometimes answering his enemies by appeals to his own authority or other extra-Scriptural sources."
Jesus often rebuked both Pharisees and Sadducees with statements such as:
Matthew 22:29 Jesus answered and said unto them,
Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
--Their mistake was not knowing the scriptures. Had they known the scriptures they would not have rejected Him.
Matthew 15:7 Ye hypocrites, well did Esaias prophesy of you, saying,
8 This people draweth nigh unto me with their mouth, and honoureth me with their lips; but their heart is far from me.
9 But in vain they do worship me,
teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.
--Here Jesus calls them (the Pharisees and Saducees) hypocrites. The reason? They discarded the doctrine, that is the teaching of the Word of God, and taught their own traditions in their place.
This sounds much like the RCC today. They discard the Word of God and teach their Tradition instead. Our Lord condemns it.
Yes, all of this is perfectly compatible with the truth of the Catholic faith. I'd still ask that you look again at Hebrews 8:10-12, which reads:
For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel
After those days, saith the Lord;
I will put my laws into their mind,
And on their heart also will I write them:
And I will be to them a God,
And they shall be to me a people:
11 And they shall not teach every man his fellow-citizen,
And every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord:
For all shall know me,
From the least to the greatest of them.
12 For I will be merciful to their iniquities,
And their sins will I remember no more.
Christ is speaking of a coming Kingdom. Christ was the authority while on earth. The temple police returned to the Jewish authorities, the Sanhedrin, without apprehending Christ.
The reason was the authority of Christ:
Matthew 7:28 And it came to pass, when Jesus had ended these sayings, the people were astonished at his doctrine:
29 For
he taught them as one having authority, and not as the scribes.
--But Christ is not among us in the flesh today. We have His Word instead.
However he will come again and set up His Kingdom in the future. In that day once again he will reign in the flesh, with a rod of iron, or with complete justice.
Then will be fulfilled this scripture with all the Jews:
11 And they shall not teach every man his fellow-citizen,
And every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord:
For all shall know me,
From the least to the greatest of them.
12 For I will be merciful to their iniquities,
And their sins will I remember no more
Though there is certainly an affirmation of the idea that this covenant applies to the individual believer ("For all shall know me") as you suggest above, I think it's important to stress the idea that we mustn't overlook the commmunal element of the New Covenant which is affirmed here, also. For the writer appeals to this aspect of this new Covenant, saying "And they shall be to me a people:..."
The only covenant made to the Gentile believer today is that covenant between Christ and the one who comes to Him as a sinner in need of a Savior--the one who trusts Christ completely as Lord and Savior of His life. One cannot apply those covenant promises made to the Jews to the Gentiles. They are not for the Gentiles.
DHK, your continued appeals to Scripture quotations within Scripture suggest to me that you don't see the distinction I am making here. Do you see how it is possible that Scripture can be authoritative and that Sola Scriptura need not be true?
No. God does not change, and thus Scripture does not change and is never wrong.
Numbers 23:19 God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?
--You I question; God never! He is always faithful. His word and promises are always faithful. He never fails.
For, after all, the doctrine of Sola Scriptura isn't reducible to a statement such as "Scripture is authoritative." If that were all SS demanded, then Catholics would accept Sola Scriptura, also.
Scripture is authoritative; the RCC is not. The RCC ought to accept sola scriptura.
Where we part ways, and this is largely the point I am trying to make to "Martin," is in the "Sola" part. We don't teach "Sola Scriptura" because, simply put, the Bible doesn't.
In one statement the Bible does:
Isaiah 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.