Notice, Revmitchell, said:
No angels do not have sex it is an absurd claim.
To which you replied:
No, it is not.
Daniel 2:43 And whereas thou sawest iron mixed with miry clay, they shall mingle themselves with the seed of men.
Jude 1:6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. 7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh,
'strange' Greek ἄτοπος heteros = altered, different. So it is not homosexual flesh...it is flesh of a supernatural/spiritual nature.
Besides that, why would Jude mention fornication TWICE in the same verse? Answer: the first 'fornication' is that of men with men. The second fornication is that of men with evil spirits. I've seen such things before my very eyes more than once.
To which was given, there is no 'second' part about 'fornication', since the word for 'fornication' is only used once, and the latter part does not mean 'fornication' ever, in any language, in any text:
The passage, Jude 1:7, does not say, in English or Greek, "fornication" twice. See for yourself:
Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. - Jude 1:7
ὡς Σόδομα καὶ Γόμορρα καὶ αἱ περὶ αὐτὰς πόλεις τὸν ὅμοιον τούτοις τρόπον ἐκπορνεύσασαι καὶ ἀπελθοῦσαι ὀπίσω σαρκὸς ἑτέρας πρόκεινται δεῖγμα, πυρὸς αἰωνίου δίκην ὑπέχουσαι. - Jude 1:7 Greek
The two words/phrases are not the same and do not meant the same thing. "Fornication" is one thing, and the "going after" [but
not obtaining] another. There is
no record of men
anywhere in Scripture
"fornicating" with angelic hosts [it is the figment of the carnal imagination], and especially not in this verse, since it is a direct reference to
Genesis 17-19, wherein the corrupt men of the city of Sodom,
never laid a finger on any of the angelic host, though they
"went after" them, they believing them to have been human men, because the angels had veiled their glory as a test to Lot and to the City itself.
Angels having another kind of "flesh" than human flesh, it is hetero-sarx. The very Chiasm of the text removes any possibility of angel-fornication or procreation, and further-more, 'fornication' [as you hold to among devils/humans] in no way states anything about procreation or giving of offspring, for differing
"kinds" cannot bring offspring, as it is written in
Genesis 1, for
"kind" may only bring forth after
"kind". The two [procreation, fornication] are not equal terms either. Additionally, in
Genesis 6, wherein the "sons of God",
not 'devils'
"took them wives". Since when is marriage [as Christ Jesus stated about the days of Noah] to
"wives", fornication, since it is written:
Marriage [is] honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge. - Hebrews 13:4
Man-kind
"of this world" has
"seed".
Where in any text, do angels [which are not of this world], ever have "seed"? Please
produce that text as soon as you are able.
Lastly, out of all of Scripture, nowhere, in any text, in the lists of the sins of Sodom and Gomorrah, is ever given as devil-human fornication.
Nowhere in Jude, Genesis 17-19, did any man actually perpetrate any sexual contact with the "two angels", but scripture elsewhere proclaims more specifically the "abominations" which actually took place there in those cities [homosexual acts amongst men and amongst women, both laying with beasts, incest [as even Lot's daughters still managed to retain the idea of from such wicked cities, Genesis 19:31-38], all manner of fornication, lasciviousness, etc.].
See
Exodus 22:19; Leviticus 18:6-30, 20:10-27; Deuteronomy 22:5, 24:4, 29:23, 32:32-33; Proverbs 6:16-19; Jeremiah 49:18, 50:40; 1 Corinthians 6:19; 1 Timothy 1:10;
"sin of Sodom" [Lamentations 4:6; Isaiah 3:9]; their
"sin is very grievous" [Genesis 18:20], not only was
"pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy" prevalent but also committing
"abomination" [Ezekiel 16:46-50] and "the men of Sodom [were] wicked and sinners before the LORD exceedingly" [Genesis 13:13;p] and thinking only about men, not knowing who the "two" actually were, those of the city of Sodom "the men of the city, [even] the men of Sodom, compassed the house round, both old and young, all the people from every quarter:" [Genesis 19:4;p] said, "Where [are] the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them." [Genesis 19:5] being the "the iniquity of the city" [Genesis 19:18] and vacillating/compromising Lot still tries to appease them with his own daughters [Genesis 19:8].
"...God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:" [Romans 1:26]
"And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet." [Romans 1:27]
There is no mention in Genesis 6 of 'devils'-human fornication, nor in 2 Peter, nor in Jude, nor in Job, nor mentioned by Jesus, etc, etc. It is non-existent, a lie, a deception of satan.