Ignorance is not inability! Ignorance is simply absence of information. Inability in regard to information would be the incapability of understanding information or receiving information if confronted with it.
Well, no one is ABLE to believe in Jesus unless he has heard of Jesus, so it is an inability in that sense.
Moreover, the phrase "he that hath an ear to hear" is rendered absurd by your definition of inability as all normal born humans have phsyical ears to hear but this is referring to ABILITY given by God to understand truth:
9 Who hath ears to hear, let him hear.
10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
You are reading inability into this scripture. He that hath an ear to hear, let him hear means that the statement being made applies to anyone who will listen.
Yes, some people will not listen, but this is not because they are not able, but because they are not willing. However, they could be willing if they chose to be so. If a person cannot choose, then he has no will.
Inability is incapabiity of understanding information given to them. Inability requires God giving them something in addition to information called "understanding."
I do not appreciate you trying to define words for me. Calvinists are the LAST persons who should define words to others.
No one is able to believe what they do not know, so it is a form of inability.
So inability is not lack of information or knowledge but incapability of understand information received.
Again, lack of knowledge is an inability, you cannot believe what you do not know.
Christ's words in Matthew 13:9-11 prove that natural man does not have the capability to know God in salvation even when the information is presented to them OR ELSE God would not have to "give" understanding in addition to information to them.
Actually, it proves the opposite. Jesus spoke in parables for the express purpose of preventing these persons from understanding and believing. It was a judgment against them.
Mat 13:10 And the disciples came, and said unto him, Why speakest thou unto them in parables?
11 He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.
12 For whosoever hath, to him shall be given, and he shall have more abundance: but whosoever hath not, from him shall be taken away even that he hath.
13 Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand.
14 And in them is fulfilled the prophecy of Esaias, which saith, By hearing ye shall hear, and shall not understand; and seeing ye shall see, and shall not perceive:
15 For this people's heart is waxed gross, and their ears are dull of hearing, and their eyes they have closed; lest at any time they should see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and should understand with their heart, and should be converted, and I should heal them.
Verse 15 refutes your view. It shows that these persons do have the ability to see or understand God's word, but they have "closed their eyes".
A person who is blind is unable to see. A person who closes his eyes is unwilling to see, not unable.
You make such a big deal over the word inability. Is closing your eyes inability?
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