Here is the problem with your line of thinking. Your mixing apples with oranges in order to obtain potatoes. Romans 2-4 is a very precise doctrinal passage where Paul is drawing fine theological distinctions and contrasts in order to draw the correct conclusions. Hence, precise termonlogy is absolutely necessary if his point is going to be made and clearly understood.
Both Christ and Paul as well as Peter in other theological contexts where contrast between canonical scriptures and non-canonical oral or written Jewish authorities are found, clearly distinguish them from each other, by designating the non-canonical as "traditions of the elders" or some other obvious designation.
However, you go to a non-doctrinal, and obvious cultural context, to illustrate Jewish traditions are found in the scriptures, as in the case of the funeral, and draw the conclusion, that this is a credible hermeneutical basis to not merely suggest, but demand, that the highly doctrinal context concerning justification in Romans 3-4, and the words "the deeds of the law" and "the law", as contrasted to "faith" are to be defined as the non-canonical Jewish traditions, instead of the canonical law of Moses, when in every other doctrinal contrast between non-canonical Jewish teachings and Moses, the precise doctrinal descriptives of the non-canonical is always "traditions" or some other obvious terms and NEVER "the deeds of the law" or "the law"???????????????????
Hence, your line of logic is to entirely dismiss the apples of all other doctrinal contexts where technicl distinctions are made clear where non-canonical authorities are always called "traditions" and NEVER "the law" or "the deeds of the law" but then take the oranges of the obvious and clear cultural contexts where doctrinal definitions are not under consideration and yet demand that such cultural contexts INFER Jewish traditions and thus that is sufficient evidence to produce the potato interpretative basis to demand that the terms "the deeds of the law" and "the law" in a highly doctrinal context of Romans 3-4 means Jewish traditions?????????????????
Can anyone else but me see the complete nonsense of this kind of hermeneutic rationale???????????????????????