The 70th Week of Daniels Prophecy

[Iconoclast]

Revmac

Here in post 80 you correctly see that the King came to Zion.
Only the elect remnant welcomed His Kingdom rule at that time.
The Kingdom has begun and grows daily as He reigns from Heaven.

 

[revmwc]

Revmac

Here in post 80 you correctly see that the King came to Zion.
Only the elect remnant welcomed His Kingdom rule at that time.
The Kingdom has begun and grows daily as He reigns from Heaven.

Yet His earthly Kingdom has not begun as prophesied but yet will come. According to Zechariah, Jeremiah and the O.T. prophets. Also it will come and Last 1000 years upon this earth and then it will become an Eternal Kingdom in a New Heaven and New Earth according the The Revelation of Jesus as penned by John.

 

[OldRegular]

The disciples knew and were sure of a coming physical millennial kingdom. When that is pointed out by quoting Acts 1:6,7, the typical Calvinist answer is that the disciples were ignorant and confused--the same type of answer or assessment that the Sanhedrin gave of Peter and John in Acts 4:13. I find that answer quite insulting to the intelligence of the disciples.

All of those six events are made in the 70th week or later. They are still future. The point is, They were not made in the past at the cross or in 70 A.D. They are still in the future.

And that should be enough for you. It is a revised statement though not much different for three of those statements are still WITHIN the 70th week.

So it is. Three of them are, and three of them are just after.
Revised means revised.

So the following from post #45, The Death of Jesus Christ is not true?

When I said I have revised my statement, then what do you think you should believe.
The first three take place at the end of the 70th week, when Christ comes again.
And the second three take place shortly after at the beginning of the Millennial Kingdom.

 

[DHK]

So the following from post #45, The Death of Jesus Christ is not true?

You are the one these events take place at the time of the death of cross; not me.
You are the one that believes the "he" of Dan.9:27 refers to Christ; not me.
You are the one that believes the 70th week follows immediately after the 69th week; not me.

No wonder you are confused.
The only reference to the death of Christ in that entire passage is in verse 26:
"and after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off."

Verse 24, which mentions the events that we have been discussing, have nothing to do with the death of Christ mentioned in verse 26. His death is mentioned as a fact. It will happen. That is it. It happens as a fulfillment of prophecy.

Most of the other information deals with what is still to come, events that happen after his death, but not necessarily as a direct result of his death.
They are more a result of His Second Coming then his death.

 

[BrotherJoseph]

You are the one these events take place at the time of the death of cross; not me.

Brother DHK,

The 6 events in Daniel 9:24 took place in the life, death, and glorification of Christ. This is evident from any unbiased reading of scripture.

Do you think it is a mere coincidence that the angel Gabriel, who brought these predictions to Daniel ( Daniel 9:21), is the same who announced the approach of Christ to Zachariah and Mary (Luke 1:11-19, 26)? This is because Christ was the one to fulfill Daniel's prophecies that Gabriel had previously shown Daniel, it is not a coincidence as one would have to believe with your interpretation of Daniel's prophecy.

Moreover, the expression used by Gabriel to Daniel, "thou art greatly beloved", is the exact equivalent by the same messenger to Mary- "thou art highly favored". This expression is to be used three times to Daniel and never to anyone else in scripture except Mary; and Gabriel is the only angel employed to make known to men the revelation of the mystery of redemption. Again Brother DHK I ask you, is this a coincidence, or is there a connection?

You are the one that believes the 70th week follows immediately after the 69th week; not me.

What in the passage leads you to believe there will be a delay from the 69th week to the 70th week?

Also, do you think it is a mere coincidence that the time from when Daniel's prophecy first began on the countdown to the 70 weeks (i.e. seventy seven of years) to the time Christ was crucified, is within the 490 years prophesied by Daniel? If you do, think is as such, do you not at least have to admit there seem to be quite many coincidences with the idea that Christ was the fulfillment of the 6 prophecies in Daniel 9:24, don't you think?

I do not wish to have long posts, thus I am going to stop this one here, but make other posts showing how Christ fulfilled the 6 prophecies of Daniel 9:24.

God bless,

Brother Joe

 

[BrotherJoseph]

Brother DHK,

Prophecy # 1 in Daniel 9:24 fulfilled. "To finish the transgression" (Daniel 9:24). This is the betrayal and crucifixion of Christ. Compare the highlighted phrase predicted in Danial "to finish the transgression" to what Christ said shortly before his betrayal, "Fill ye up then the measure of your fathers... that upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth" (Matthew 23:32). In these words of Christ we find first, a declaration that the hour had come for them "to finish the transgression"; and second, a strong intimation that the predicted desolations were to come, as a judgment upon that generation, as appears by the words "that upon you may come."

Prophecy # 2 in Daniel 9:24 fulfilled "To make an end to sins". Did Jesus do this? Scripture makes it clear he did! "12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;"(Hebrews 10:12) and Hebrews 1:3, "when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:" Brother DHK, in light of these scriptures, and the timing of the 490 years that Daniel predicted, how can you deny this is not fulfillment of the prophecy?

 

[BrotherJoseph]

Brother DHK,

Daniel 9:24 prophecy # 3 ""To make reconciliation for iniquity", did Christ's sacrifice do this? Lets look at the scripture. " And you, that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled22 In the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight (Colossians 1:21-22)

Daniel 9:24 prophecy # 4, "To bring in everlasting righteousness" is this what Christ did according to scripture? "...the kingdom of God is righteousness and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost" (Romans 14:17), "21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:" (Romans 3:21-22). Jesus Christ it is said has been made unto US "righteousness" (1 Corinthians 1:30) and finally, "...behold the days come, saith the Lord, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a King reign and prosper And this is His Name whereby He shall be called JEHOVAH RIGHTEOUSNESS" (Jeremiah 23:5-6)

The proof for these prophecy fulfillments in undeniable from scripture to one not biased by their doctrinal presuppositions.

God bless,

Brother Joe

 

[BrotherJoseph]

Prophecy 5 in Daniel 9:24, "To seal up vision and prophecy", fulfillment John 12:39-41,"39 Therefore they could not believe, because that Esaias said again,0 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.41 These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him."

How long Isaiah asked was the blindness to last, the answer was, "Until the cities be wasted without inhabitan, and the houses without man, and the land be utterly desolate, and the Lord removed men far away, and there be a great forsaking in the midst of the land" (Isaiah 6:11-12) Here we have a clear prediction of that which Christ Himself prophesied when the desolation of Judea, and the scattering of Jews among all nations "24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled."

Prophecy 6 Daniel 9:24, "To anoit the most holy place", this was fulfilled by the coming of the Holy Spirit upon the disciples of Christ, on the day of Pentecost, thereby anointing ("Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God" (2 Corinthians 1:21)) a spiritual temple or "holy place" as Daniel says, "the temple of the Living god" and is seen here in Paul's writings, " for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them" (2 Corinthians 6:16)

Brother DHK, these are the clear fulfillment of all the 6 prophecies in Daniel 9:24 to any unbiased reader of scripture. I do not with to plagiarize, thus please note I have drawn upon a book titled, "The Seventy Weeks and The Great Tribulation" by Phillip Mauro. It is a great scholarly worked by a man much more learned than me and would recommend it to any.

In the future I hope to address how the 7th prophecy found in Daniel 9:27 was fulfilled in the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem, but that I think is better left for a different day with its own thread.

God bless,

Brother Joe

 

[DHK]

Brother DHK,

The 6 events in Daniel 9:24 took place in the life, death, and glorification of Christ. This is evident from any unbiased reading of scripture.

No, it is not evident at all. From the unbiased reading of Isa.9:6 do all the events in that verse take place at his birth?
Do all the events of Joel 2:28ff take place on the Day of Pentecost?
Many Scriptures have both near and far and some multiple prophecies like a prophet looking down the peaks of several mountains with valleys (of time) in between. He can only see the tops of the mountains, and often doesn't clearly understand what he is writing.

Do you think it is a mere coincidence that the angel Gabriel, who brought these predictions to Daniel ( Daniel 9:21), is the same who announced the approach of Christ to Zachariah and Mary (Luke 1:11-19, 26)?

He is a messenger of God. It is totally irrelevant.

This is because Christ was the one to fulfill Daniel's prophecies that Gabriel had previously shown Daniel, it is not a coincidence as one would have to believe with your interpretation of Daniel's prophecy.

Spiritualizing scripture or reading too much into scripture is simply eisigesis, and an error of interpretation.

Moreover, the expression used by Gabriel to Daniel, "thou art greatly beloved", is the exact equivalent by the same messenger to Mary- "thou art highly favored". This expression is to be used three times to Daniel and never to anyone else in scripture except Mary; and Gabriel is the only angel employed to make known to men the revelation of the mystery of redemption. Again Brother DHK I ask you, is this a coincidence, or is there a connection?

No connection at all. Actually the phrase "highly favored" has more in common with the greeting given to "Jael" than given to Daniel. So, again, you are reading into scripture things that are not there.

Jdg 5:24 Blessed above women shall Jael the wife of Heber the Kenite be, blessed shall she be above women in the tent.

Luke 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

Luke 1:42 And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.

Deborah, in song, said about Jael, what the angel said about Mary.
The comparison is far more similar than Daniel to Mary.
Therefore I believe you are reading into scripture that which is not there.

What in the passage leads you to believe there will be a delay from the 69th week to the 70th week?

At the end of 69 weeks the Messiah is cut off. He died. That time has been calculated by a number of Godly scholars--483 years. It has been calculated from the time that Ahasuerus gave the command to Nehemiah to go and rebuild Jerusalem, (using a lunar month of 30 days and thus a year of 360 days and taking into account other factors). 483 years (their time) from that date would bring one to April 33 A.D., the date that most believe Christ died. This is an unbelievably accurate prophecy. It is not simply sometime after 69 weeks. It is at the end of, right at the end of.
So the question really ought to be, why don't a good many here believe Christ died right at the end of the 69th week as the prophecy actually says?

If that be so, then when was the seventh week. What started it?
What or who ended it?
What was the promise made for seven years, and who made it?
Why was it broken in the middle?
If the "he" of verse 27 is Christ, as OR affirms, then Christ made a covenant for 7 years and broke the covenant in the middle of that seven years becoming a liar and a truce-breaker.

But the "he" is not Christ. He is the antichrist, a "foreigner" who has not yet set foot on this earth. He will make a covenant with the nation of Israel for seven years and then break it in the midst of that seven year people by desecrating the Temple. That has not happened yet. Jesus confirms this prophecy in Mat.24:15ff.

Also, do you think it is a mere coincidence that the time from when Daniel's prophecy first began on the countdown to the 70 weeks (i.e. seventy seven of years) to the time Christ was crucified, is within the 490 years prophesied by Daniel?

It is not.

If you do, think is as such, do you not at least have to admit there seem to be quite many coincidences with the idea that Christ was the fulfillment of the 6 prophecies in Daniel 9:24, don't you think?

NO. He was not the fulfillment of any of them--not even close.

I do not wish to have long posts, thus I am going to stop this one here, but make other posts showing how Christ fulfilled the 6 prophecies of Daniel 9:24.

Good idea.

 

[DHK]

Brother DHK,

Prophecy # 1 in Daniel 9:24 fulfilled. "To finish the transgression" (Daniel 9:24). This is the betrayal and crucifixion of Christ. Compare the highlighted phrase predicted in Danial "to finish the transgression" to what Christ said shortly before his betrayal, "Fill ye up then the measure of your fathers... that upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth" (Matthew 23:32). In these words of Christ we find first, a declaration that the hour had come for them "to finish the transgression"; and second, a strong intimation that the predicted desolations were to come, as a judgment upon that generation, as appears by the words "that upon you may come."

Prophecy # 2 in Daniel 9:24 fulfilled "To make an end to sins". Did Jesus do this? Scripture makes it clear he did! "12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;"(Hebrews 10:12) and Hebrews 1:3, "when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:" Brother DHK, in light of these scriptures, and the timing of the 490 years that Daniel predicted, how can you deny this is not fulfillment of the prophecy?

Look at the verse again:

Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins,

Gabriel, speaking to Daniel, said that this prophecy was directed to "Daniel's people" and Daniel's city, that is, the nation of Israel, and Jerusalem.
The death of Christ was for both Jews and Gentiles. The promises within the verse refer only to the nation of Israel.

In Matthew 23, that is just one of many harsh rebukes that Jesus gives to the Pharisees. The entire chapter is full of them.
The greatest "transgression" they committed was putting the Messiah to death. They rejected him then, and again at Pentecost. They have been rejecting him ever since. It is not just once.
The Bible says about the Jew:
Rom 2:5
(5) But after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up unto thyself wrath against the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
--They treasure up wrath against the day of wrath. And they will give account of themselves. When Christ comes that accumulation of transgressions will be finished. He will finish the transgressions.

Likewise he will make an end of sin. It has almost the same meaning as above. He will end their transgressions and sins. At His Coming he will put an end to it all.
This doesn't refer to what happened at the cross. What happened at the cross happened for all. These expressions are expressive of the actions of the Jews alone. And their sins have not stopped.

 

[DHK]

Brother DHK,

Daniel 9:24 prophecy # 3 ""To make reconciliation for iniquity", did Christ's sacrifice do this? Lets look at the scripture. " And you, that were sometime alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now hath he reconciled22 In the body of his flesh through death, to present you holy and unblameable and unreproveable in his sight (Colossians 1:21-22)

If any expression would seem to have the most scriptural support it would be this one.
When it comes to interpretation I must put aside my dispensationalism, amillenialism, and whatever other "ism" one might believe. I must ask the question: "What does the text say?" What about the context?
When I go back to the verse it is speaking about "Daniel's people," Israel.
Reconciliation was not made with Israel. In fact the opposite happened. They rejected the Messiah. It doesn't matter what your position is on eschatology or salvation, it matters what the text says. Israel rejected their Messiah and there was no reconciliation of sins made. This is not speaking of the cross.
Some day the nation of Israel (a remnant) will be saved. They will call upon Christ as a nation. That is what is being referred to. That will happen when Christ comes again.

Daniel 9:24 prophecy # 4, "To bring in everlasting righteousness" is this what Christ did according to scripture? "...the kingdom of God is righteousness and peace, and joy in the Holy Ghost" (Romans 14:17), "21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:" (Romans 3:21-22). Jesus Christ it is said has been made unto US "righteousness" (1 Corinthians 1:30) and finally, "...behold the days come, saith the Lord, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a King reign and prosper And this is His Name whereby He shall be called JEHOVAH RIGHTEOUSNESS" (Jeremiah 23:5-6)

The proof for these prophecy fulfillments in undeniable from scripture to one not biased by their doctrinal presuppositions.

and finally, "...behold the days come, saith the Lord, that I will raise unto David a righteous Branch, and a King reign and prosper And this is His Name whereby He shall be called JEHOVAH RIGHTEOUSNESS" (Jeremiah 23:5-6)
--Has this happened yet?
Does the King (Christ) rule--reign and prosper. The context here is on the earth.
Again context: What to the two preceding verses say:

Jeremiah 23:3 And I will gather the remnant of my flock out of all countries whither I have driven them, and will bring them again to their folds; and they shall be fruitful and increase.
4 And I will set up shepherds over them which shall feed them: and they shall fear no more, nor be dismayed, neither shall they be lacking, saith the LORD.
--This is not heaven; it is the earth; it is that one thousand year period called the Millennial Kingdom when Christ rules for a thousand years. It is a physical kingdom, not spiritual.

And the verse after:
Jeremiah 23:6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.
--Right after His coming: "Judah shall be saved."
The Kingdom comes right after His Coming.

The wording of the phrase is important.
Christ is not here "imputing righteousness."
He is "bringing it in." The question therefore is, where?
He is bringing in everlasting righteousness to all the world, in the Millennial Kingdom. There is no such thing as everlasting righteousness today. Satan is the god of this world. The whole world lies in a world of wickedness. He is the prince of the power of the air. It is a wicked world where evil prevails over good. Christ is not reigning in this world today.

 

[DHK]

Prophecy 5 in Daniel 9:24, "To seal up vision and prophecy", fulfillment John 12:39-41,"39 Therefore they could not believe, because that Esaias said again,0 He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them.41 These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him."

How long Isaiah asked was the blindness to last, the answer was, "Until the cities be wasted without inhabitan, and the houses without man, and the land be utterly desolate, and the Lord removed men far away, and there be a great forsaking in the midst of the land" (Isaiah 6:11-12) Here we have a clear prediction of that which Christ Himself prophesied when the desolation of Judea, and the scattering of Jews among all nations "24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled."

I don't understand why you think this prophecy has anything to do with Isaiah. There is no connection. Isaiah lived about 100 years before Daniel, ca. 700 B.C. Daniel was taken away with the captivity 605-586 B.C. Nothing that Daniel said would have affected Isaiah.
And in John 12, their unbelief was not the sealing up of prophecy. More prophecy was to come and to be fulfilled after that. Your explanation falls far short of the expression given in Dan.9:24.

Prophecy 6 Daniel 9:24, "To anoit the most holy place", this was fulfilled by the coming of the Holy Spirit upon the disciples of Christ, on the day of Pentecost, thereby anointing ("Now he which stablisheth us with you in Christ, and hath anointed us, is God" (2 Corinthians 1:21)) a spiritual temple or "holy place" as Daniel says, "the temple of the Living god" and is seen here in Paul's writings, " for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them" (2 Corinthians 6:16)

What would make these disciples "the most holy place"? Why them, and why there? How can you be sure this is a fulfillment of that prophecy. It doesn't even seem related.

Brother DHK, these are the clear fulfillment of all the 6 prophecies in Daniel 9:24 to any unbiased reader of scripture. I do not with to plagiarize, thus please note I have drawn upon a book titled, "The Seventy Weeks and The Great Tribulation" by Phillip Mauro. It is a great scholarly worked by a man much more learned than me and would recommend it to any.

Perhaps you should read Alva McClain.
There are only a couple of these prophecies which "could" appear to be "clear fulfilments." The others seem like guess work, and not even closely related, especially the last two. Again, the context of the verse is ignored, and that is the main objection.

In the future I hope to address how the 7th prophecy found in Daniel 9:27 was fulfilled in the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem, but that I think is better left for a different day with its own thread.

Fine with me.

 

[BrotherJoseph]

If any expression would seem to have the most scriptural support it would be this one.
When it comes to interpretation I must put aside my dispensationalism, amillenialism, and whatever other "ism" one might believe. I must ask the question: "What does the text say?" What about the context?
When I go back to the verse it is speaking about "Daniel's people," Israel.
Reconciliation was not made with Israel. In fact the opposite happened. They rejected the Messiah. It doesn't matter what your position is on eschatology or salvation, it matters what the text says. Israel rejected their Messiah and there was no reconciliation of sins made. This is not speaking of the cross.
Some day the nation of Israel (a remnant) will be saved. They will call upon Christ as a nation. That is what is being referred to. That will happen when Christ comes again.

Brother DHK,

Thanks for your many replies and thoughts to each post I made.

Reconciliation was made for the elect remnant of believers who are Jewish by blood, or do you believe there are no "born again" Jews after Christ rose again? What about the disciples, weren't they Jewish and reconciled? Are other Jews going to be reconciled in the future in a different manner than through Christ's crucifixion? Paul says, "And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation". Here he clearly refers to himself, a Jew, as "us" being reconciled "by Jesus Christ", thus how can you say Jews were not reconciled by the cross? Finally, are you going to assert Jews are not included in the reconciled group in the following verse, "And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven (Colossians 1:20)" (the Jews are things in earth are they not? Also, wouldn't they be included in "all things" that Christ reconciled?)

Finally, if the Jews are yet to be reconciled, how are they going to be reconciled if not through the cross? Did not Jesus say "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No man cometh to the Father, but through me"?

Do you believe every Jew will be saved? (I take it by your post you do not, nor do I, but I want to make sure I understand your views properly)

God bless and have a good night,

Brother Joe

 

[DHK]

Brother DHK,

Thanks for your many replies and thoughts to each post I made.

Reconciliation was made for the elect remnant of believers who are Jewish by blood, or do you believe there are no "born again" Jews after Christ rose again? What about the disciples, weren't they Jewish and reconciled? Are other Jews going to be reconciled in the future in a different manner than through Christ's crucifixion? Paul says, "And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us the ministry of reconciliation". Here he clearly refers to himself, a Jew, as "us" being reconciled "by Jesus Christ", thus how can you say Jews were not reconciled by the cross? Finally, are you going to assert Jews are not included in the reconciled group in the following verse, "And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven (Colossians 1:20)" (the Jews are things in earth are they not? Also, wouldn't they be included in "all things" that Christ reconciled?)

Finally, if the Jews are yet to be reconciled, how are they going to be reconciled if not through the cross? Did not Jesus say "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No man cometh to the Father, but through me"?

Do you believe every Jew will be saved? (I take it by your post you do not, nor do I, but I want to make sure I understand your views properly)

God bless and have a good night,

Brother Joe

Let me lay some groundwork by establishing what the position of the Jews are today:
1 Corinthians 10:32 Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God:
Clearly, Paul delineates three groups here:
1. The Jews. 2. Gentiles. 3. The church of God.
--All three exist now as separate entities. In fact in both chapters nine and ten Paul prays for the salvation of his nation Israel. If Israel did not exist at that time, then Paul would be a lunatic to be praying for something that doesn't exist. Israel does exist separate from the church.

Jews today become saved the same way any other person does; the same way a Muslim or Hindu does--by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone. When Peter, John, Paul and all the 3,000 on the Day of Pentecost got saved they left their Judaism behind and became Christians. A Muslim would have to do the same thing. One cannot be a believer of two religions. Paul was only a "Hebrew" by birth or ethnicity, not by faith.
The teaching behind 1Cor.10:32 takes Paul from the camp of the Jews and puts him into the camp of the Christians. He can't be in both. Neither can one be a "Muslim-Christian." They don't exist. You are one or the other.

Someday, this nation that does exist as Israel will accept the Messiah that they rejected 2,000 years ago. "So then all Israel shall be saved."
When Christ comes "for his elect" they shall turn to him as a nation.
Revelation 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.

To answer your question then, "reconciliation" has been made for all who will believe on him whether they be Jew or Gentile. But that is not what is being said.
"to make reconciliation for iniquity," for the Jews.
"Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people"
--This has nothing to do with the cross, the Gentiles, etc., rather the Day of the Lord, the Second Coming, the salvation of the Jews as a nation. That is when they, as a nation, will be reconciled to their Messiah.

One of the great themes in Paul's epistles is unity. Once the Gentiles became Christians they left their paganism behind. Once the Jews became saved they left their Judaism behind. Therefore there is no more Jew or Gentile, but we are all one in Christ. There is no such thing as a pagan Christian just as there is no such thing as a Jewish Christian. We are one in Christ.
Just as pagans (Gentiles) still exist, so does Israel.

 

[beameup]

This reconciliation with Israel, for their sin (of rejection), will be accomplished at the end of the 70th Week of Daniel, at the Second Coming.
And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. Jer 31:34

And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Zion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. Rom 11:26-27

For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: And they shall not teach every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest. For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more. Heb 8:10-12