The accurate account is given in the gospels as Judas threw the money into the temple it is obvious he could not have purchased the land for himself.
In Acts it says:
Act 1:18 Now this man purchased a field with the reward of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.
--What happened as recorded here?
Though Judas did not buy the field directly he did so indirectly for it was his money that paid for and it was purchased in his name.
Matthew 27 also records that he went out and hanged himself, which he did. The account in Acts simply adds some of the more gruesome details to that without contradiction.
--"falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out."
"Falling headlong," that is as he fell when he was hung, he burst asunder. His intestines quickly became swollen and distended after being hung and "burst asunder."
Or,
(CEV) Then Judas bought some land with the money he was given for doing that evil thing. He fell headfirst into the field. His body burst open, and all his insides came out.
The Bible doesn't contradict itself. If there are difficult passages then study them until you find the answer to the seeming contradiction has been solved. It is not the Bible that contradicts itself, it is man that rebels against what God is saying in His Word.
Of course you would say that there are no contradictions, but you would have quite a different answer when it comes to the Scriptures and Jesus's "Real Presence" in the Holy Eucharist wouldn't you? And this time in reverse no less!
Jesus says several times in the Scriptures that "This is my Body" and This is my Blood", an assertion as bold and clear a statement if there ever was (which of course you reject). You cite such passages as "I am the vine" or "I am the door" to disprove this - passages that have nothing whatsoever to do with what Jesus was saying about his body and blood and the Eucharist.
In the previous instance about Judas's death and the two actual different accounts however, you give the benefit of the doubt to say they both mean the same thing, while in the instance of Jesus's "Real Presence" when every scripture verse concerning this is virtually the same, you go out of your way to say such a thing couldn't possibly be.
But really, one needs to go to the correct Scripture verse THAT SUSTAINS Jesus's claim and what the Apostles actually believed about this issue. In 1 Cor 11 27-29 it says: "So then, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord. 28 Everyone ought to examine themselves before they eat of the bread and drink from the cup. 29 For those who eat and drink without discerning the body of Christ eat and drink judgment on themselves". Good grief, could the writer have been any clearer than what was actually meant? And what he meant?
As you like to say, Scripture proves Scripture and here is St. Paul proving Jesus's claim in a clear and unambiguous manner. Look, if you can get this simple biblical truth so wrong, any other biblical interpretations you make should be viewed with extreme suspicion.
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