Featured The Atonement: Which is The Bible's Teaching?

I like Piper's explanation. It is exactly what I mean when I say that Jesus died so that all may be saved but also that those who believed would be saved.

Christ's death was a genuine offer to all mankind and no one has the excuse (to use Billy Idol) of "Jesus died for somebody's sins but not mine". But at the same time the Atonement was purposed to effect the salvation of those who would believe (those whom the Father gave, the sheep). All could be saved, but none of their own accord (apart from God's intervention) will come. But there are a people called by God, chosen by God, and predestined by God to be a people of God. And they will come because the coming is directly related to the drawing. It is a work of God.

 

Very often Scripture speaks of election as corporate (e.g., "the elect") and to my knowledge there is not an instance where an unbeliever is described as "elect" or "chosen" (within the context of salvation). I That said, I do believe that Romans 8:29 illustrates an individual election: "For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren".

As the state of "election" is not applied to an unbeliever (while in lost state) I don't see this as a point that would (or should) divide. I think that you don't go far enough with this doctrine, but I also see that there are some who go too far (those who refer to people in this life as "sheep" or "goats" regardless of belief, approaching the heresy of Daniel Parker and his "serpent seed" doctrine).

 

Isaiah 53 was also "fully in the mode" of the Substitution Theory as well (not to mention the Christus Victor motif and the other's along the way).

In the context of Isaiah 53, yes, I believe that those who viewed Christ's arrest all the way through the cross esteemed Him as smitten of God and afflicted. BUT he was pierced for their/our transgressions, crushed for our iniquities. The chastising for our well-being fell upon Him and by His scourging we are healed.

 

Again, for context, please point me to the passage you are referring to. It's easier for me to reply as I can see more fully where you are reading.

Thanks.

 

All sinners do have the same hope of getting saved. None, however, will turn to that Hope. God draws a people to Himself.

 

I don't see how this relates to your question. Jesus bore the sins of many and he will appear a second time - not to deal with sin but to save those who are eagerly waiting for Him. Jesus' death was a propitiation for our sins, not only ours but for the sins of the whole world (and using "world" within the context of 2 John, John Calvin was right that it means all mankind without exception). All mankind can be saved because of Jesus' work on the Cross - no exceptions. But only those who believe will be saved based on Jesus' work on the cross.

 

Because the work of the Cross was for all sinners (for all mankind). You affirm a great truth, brother, that Jesus died so that those who would believe in Him would have life, and ONLY those who believe in Him will be saved (there is no other way). That said, you deny another truth, that God is the Savior of all men. I believe you are restricted by your theology, but I do understand where you are coming from.

 

Yes. And sufficiency implies that it could have saved those sinners (if it were not meant as a legitimate means that they could be saved then it would have been insufficient for their salvation). Salvation is to all men a legitimate offer and all men could be saved if they would believe. But they can't because they won't. And we wouldn't either, except that God worked in our hearts in such a way that we believe.