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The Bible Agnostic Test.

SovereignGrace

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Only one version got this verse WRONG.

The God of our fathers raised up Jesus, whom ye slew and hanged on a tree.[KJV]

The King James translation is in error. Jesus was not slain, then hanged on a tree. He was slain by hanging Him on a tree.
Yeah, I caught my faux pas too late and couldn’t correct it. I stated it in a later post.
 
I don't think there is any bible in any language that is free from error, so no, there are no perfect translations, imo. The autographs are the ones who are error free, not the copies of copies, of copies, of copies...

I notice you put the King James Version on a pedestal by calling it the King James Bible. The King James is a version of the bible, not the bible itself. Notice all the revisions done down through time. If the KJV is perfect, then why all the revisions.

Here's another place the KJV greatly errs:

And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement.[KJV]

And not only this, but we also exult in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.[NASB 1995]

More than that, we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received reconciliation.[ESV]

And not only that, but we also boast in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received this reconciliation.[CSB]

So now we can rejoice in our wonderful new relationship with God because our Lord Jesus Christ has made us friends of God.[NLT] I don't like this take very well at all.

And not only that, but we also rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the reconciliation.[NKJV; it had to clean up the mess made by the KJV]


None of us receives the atonement, but we do reap the benefit(s) of the atonement, i.e. reconciliation. So here is another place the KJV dropped the ball.
Hi SG. Then you admit that you do not believe that any Bible you can show us is the complete and inerrant words of God. And of course even though you use a present tense verb - ARE - when you tell us " The autographs ARE the ones who are error free", when you have never seen or read a single word of the autographs (which never even came close to making up an entire Bible in the first place) and you cannot show them to anybody simply because the DO NOT EXIST (present tense verb).

You are expressing your faith in something that does not exist.

And since you are your own authority you then ignorantly claim that the King James Bible is in error in Romans 5:11 where the KJB and many others correctly reads "atonement". For those who have ears to hear, here is why the KJB got it right, as it always does.

Romans 5:11 Atonement or Reconciliation?

Another King James Bible Believer

KJB - "And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the ATONEMENT."

NKJV (ESV, NIV, NASB, LSB) - "And not only that, but we rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the RECONCILIATION."

Here is just a part of the whole article. Click on the link to see the whole Biblical explanation as to why "atonement" is the best word to use in this context and what several well known Bible commentators say about it.

Bibles that say ATONEMENT.

Not only has the King James Bible translated Romans 5:11 as "by whom we have now received the ATONEMENT" but so also do the following Bible versions: Tyndale 1525 - "by whom we have receavyd the ATTONMENT.", Coverdale 1535, The Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540 - "by whom we haue now optayned the ATTONMENT.", Matthew's Bible 1549, the Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1557 to 1602 "by whom we haue nowe receiued the ATONEMENT.", The Beza New Testament 1599, The Bill Bible 1671, Whiston's Primitive N.T. 1745, the Clarke N.T. 1795, Webster's 1833 translation, The Morgan New Testament 1848, The Commonly Received Version 1851, The Revised New Testament 1862, The Dillard N.T. 1885, The Word of Yah 1993, the KJV 21st Century Version 1994, the 1998 Third Millennium Bible "by whom we have now received THE ATONEMENT.", God's First Truth 1999, Tomson New Testament 2002, The Evidence Bible 2003, The Resurrection Life New Testament 2005 (Vince Garcia), The Revised Geneva Bible 2005, the Bond Slave Version 2009, The Conservative Bible 2010, The BRG Bible 2012, and the Hebraic Roots Bible 2012 - "through whom we now received THE ATONEMENT."


The King James reading of ATONEMENT is totally accurate and it, unlike the modern versions that render this as "reconciliation", shows the final sacrifice of the Lamb of God as the fulfillment of all the Old Testament sacrifices which atoned for the sins of God's people.

I and many others will stick with the Book God has honored far above all others - the Authorized King James Holy Bible.

Whole article here -
Romans 5:11 Atonement or Reconciliation?

Another King James Bible Believer

God bless.
 
I can say the exact same thing about my NASB.
Ohh.... You mean the constantly changing Vatican supervised text NASBs that teach that the children of Israel DECEIVED God in Psalms 78:36? That one? The one that keeps changing both its Hebrew and Greek texts from one edition to the next? That NASB?
The Ever Changing NASBs - 1960, 1962, 1963, 1968, 1971, 1972, 1973, 1975, 1977, 1995 and 2020 editions.

Another King James Bible Believer

Can God be deceived? In Psalms 78:36 The NASB 1972-1995 editions, NET and the Legacy Standard Bible tell us that the children of Israel deceived God. Not just "tried to deceive" or "thought they had deceived" but deceived Him. Is God gullible? Is that even possible? Not even the ASV, ESV, NIV, NKJV read that way.


Another King James Bible Believer

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear."

"But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant."

God bless.
 
The translators of the KJV certainly didn't consider their version to be uniquely excellent.
An extract from The Translators to the Readers (written by the translators, this appeared in full in the original 1611 printing):

'..... We do not deny, nay, we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of the Bible in English set forth by men of our profession [i.e. linguists M.M.] (for we have seen none of the whole Bible as yet) containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God.'


Hi Martin. Two things. First, are you willing to just be honest (as some here actually are) and admit the fact that you really do not believe that any Bible in any language you can show us is now or ever was the complete and 100% true words of God? Yes or No?
IF you think you do have one, can you give us a link to where we can see it and read what it says?

Second thing. Like James White and other bible agnostics and Vatican Version promoters, you rip a quote out of the Preface to the Reader and totally take it out of context. The KJB Preface is making a contrast between men of our profession (the previous English Bible translators) and the Roman Catholic Douay Rheims version. And this is the same thing that is going on today. Are you willing to find out the truth of this?


"the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?

Another King James Bible Believer

Were the KJV translators "liars" for saying that "the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?

To all Bible agnostics and Vatican Version promoters. Like James White, you completely rip this quote from the KJB Preface completely out of context, when the simple FACT is, they were condemning the Vatican's versions which most of you are using. It doesn't get much more ironic than this.

Find out Why their statement does not mean what you think it means.

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear."

"But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant."

God bless.
 
The translators of the KJV certainly didn't consider their version to be uniquely excellent.
An extract from The Translators to the Readers (written by the translators, this appeared in full in the original 1611 printing):

'..... We do not deny, nay, we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of the Bible in English set forth by men of our profession [i.e. linguists M.M.] (for we have seen none of the whole Bible as yet) containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God.'




"the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?


Another King James Bible Believer


Were the KJV translators "liars" for saying that "the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?

To all Bible agnostics and Vatican Version promoters. Like James White, you completely rip this quote from the KJB Preface completely out of context, when the simple FACT is, they were condemning the Vatican's versions which most of you are using. It doesn't get much more ironic than this.


Find out Why their statement does not mean what you think it means.

 
"the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?



Another King James Bible Believer



Were the KJV translators "liars" for saying that "the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?



To all Bible agnostics and Vatican Version promoters. Like James White, you completely rip this quote from the KJB Preface completely out of context, when the simple FACT is, they were condemning the Vatican's versions which most of you are using. It doesn't get much more ironic than this.



Find out Why their statement does not mean what you think it means.
 
Your test is invalid since it involves use of fallacies. Your bogus test does not prove what you allege. According to your own test, you yourself would be a bible agnostic concerning before 1611. The Scriptures do not teach that the word of God today is bound to the textual criticism decisions, Bible revision decisions, and translation decisions of one exclusive group of doctrinally-unsound Church of England men in 1611.

I was attending some sessions of the King James Bible Research Council National Conference held in King, NC, yesterday.

You unsoundly and improperly try to condemn believers who believe actual scriptural truths as being bible agnostics. In effect, you may be bearing false witness with your incorrect, non-scriptural test.

It can be properly concluded from the Scriptures that God has not spoken words added by men (Deut. 4:2, Deut. 12:32, Prov. 30:6, Rev. 22:18). Since the law or word of the LORD is perfect (Ps. 19:7, James 1:25) and since perfection by definition would exclude the presence of even one imperfection, would imperfect renderings made by men or any errors introduced by men whether copiers, printers, or translators be identical to the perfect words of God given to the prophets and apostles? Since the statues or words of the LORD are right (Ps. 19:8, Ps. 33:4) and since the words of the LORD are true (Ps. 19:9, John 17:17, Ps. 119:160), it can be soundly and scripturally concluded that any wrong words or errors introduced by imperfect men in copying, in printing, or in translating would not be the absolutely pure words of God. It would be a sound, righteous judgment based on stated scriptural truths to maintain that any errors introduced by men are not words inspired by God. Therefore, any error introduced by a copier, editor, printer, or whomever in copies of Scripture can be and should be corrected. It could also be soundly concluded that any words perverted, diminished, or mistranslated by men are not actual words spoken or given by God (Jer. 23:36, Deut. 4:2, Jer. 23:28, Deut. 12:32, 2 Cor. 2:17, Jer. 23:16).

So, Logos, put your theory to the test. Take what you referred to as "all verses directly given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles are the pure and perfect word of God." and in other places you refer to the Hebrew and Greek originals or autographs as being your final authority. Take those things and apply them to two of the examples I gave you in the Bible Agnostic Test and let us know which are the true and inspired readings. Can you do that for us?

Looking forward to your response. Thanks.
 

Ascetic X

Well-Known Member
Then you admit that you do not believe that any Bible you can show us is the complete and inerrant words of God. And of course even though you use a present tense verb - ARE - when you tell us " The autographs ARE the ones who are error free", when you have never seen or read a single word of the autographs (which never even came close to making up an entire Bible in the first place) and you cannot show them to anybody simply because the DO NOT EXIST (present tense verb).

You are expressing your faith in something that does not exist.
If the original autographs do not currently exist, how do you know they never came close to making up an entire Bible? Each original autograph was composed at different times by various authors, but they are referred to as a group, when saying they were inerrant.

Seems odd that God would wait until 1611 to provide a perfect version of the Bible.

It used to be that independent Baptists separated themselves from other Christians over important doctrines, such as the virgin birth of Christ, the deity of Christ, baptism, communion, sanctification, or the inspiration of the Scriptures.

Today, the independents are separating, even among themselves, over issues such as Bible translations, music style, and dress.

Rising to the forefront of the fundamentalist squabbles is the King James Only controversy.

The extreme legalistic KJO position is Ruckmanism, the cult based on Peter Ruckman, a man of harsh spirit, vulgar language, and weird ideas.

Some of the choice names Ruckman calls men who disagree with him are the following:

• “jackass”

• “poor, dumb, stupid red legs”

• “silly asses”

• “apostolic succession of bloated egotists”

• “two-bit junkies”

• “two-faced, tin-horned punks”

• “incredible idiots”

• “egotistical jack legs”

• “conservative asses whose brains have gone to seed”

• “cheap, two-bit punks”

• “stupid, little, Bible-rejecting apostates”

Dr. Ruckman can get very mean spirited. He calls the New American Standard Version “more of the same old godless, depraved crap” (Satan’s Masterpiece--the New ASV, p. 67).

In The Unknown Bible, p. 100, Ruckman says, “You see how people get all screwed up?”

Ruckman believes God has called him to speak like this:

“God called me to sit at this typewriter and pour forth VINEGAR, ACID, VITRIOL, AND CLEANING FLUID on the leading conservative and fundamental scholars of 1900 through 1990. ... God is in charge. He ... destines me to sit at this typewriter and LAMBASTE, SCALD AND RIDICULE these Bible rejecting fundamentalists who ‘believe the Bible is the Word of God,’ ... I hereby dedicate myself anew to the task of DESTRUCTIVE CRITICISM AND NEGATIVE BLASTING against every adversary of that Holy Book...”

(The Bible Believers Bulletin, Dec. 1985).

Peter Ruckman is not taken seriously, due to his strange thinking, his multiple divorces, his angry spirit, his arrogance, his Alexandrian cult mentality, his extremism regarding the KJV being advanced revelation, and his bizarre private doctrines tend to cause men to reject his fanatic worship of the King James Version.

Virtually all of today’s cults (excepting the Jehovah’s Witnesses) prefer the King James version over the rest, including the Mormons, who also preach a “works-salvation.”

No one today reads from the 1611 version, which also included the Apocrypha. The 1769 revision is the most common version of the King James translation, and this one includes thousands of differences compared to the original.

The 1611 King James Version included thousands of footnotes which offered different readings for different verses.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
"the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?

Another King James Bible Believer

Were the KJV translators "liars" for saying that "the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?
No. I don't believe they were; certainly not at the time they wrote, and given the qualification they made which you conveniently omitted. You should read the arguments they give for making that statement.
To all Bible agnostics and Vatican Version promoters. Like James White, you completely rip this quote from the KJB Preface completely out of context, when the simple FACT is, they were condemning the Vatican's versions which most of you are using. It doesn't get much more ironic than this.

Find out Why their statement does not mean what you think it means.
I do not need to find out. I have the complete 'Preface to the Reader' in the front of my Authorized Version Bible (that is what the KJV has always been called in England). I am fully aware that the translators were criticizing the Church of Rome for insisting that the Bible should not be translated into English because Jerome's 'Vulgate' Bible was in some way so perfect, that any translation must be inferior. Sound familiar?
The preface is quite long, and quite prolix. Why don't you post those extracts that you think support your argument, and we can discuss them? If you are not prepared to do that, you are being disingenuous, to use no stronger term.
 

SovereignGrace

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Hi SG. Then you admit that you do not believe that any Bible you can show us is the complete and inerrant words of God. And of course even though you use a present tense verb - ARE - when you tell us " The autographs ARE the ones who are error free", when you have never seen or read a single word of the autographs (which never even came close to making up an entire Bible in the first place) and you cannot show them to anybody simply because the DO NOT EXIST (present tense verb).

You are expressing your faith in something that does not exist.

And since you are your own authority you then ignorantly claim that the King James Bible is in error in Romans 5:11 where the KJB and many others correctly reads "atonement". For those who have ears to hear, here is why the KJB got it right, as it always does.

Romans 5:11 Atonement or Reconciliation?

Another King James Bible Believer

KJB - "And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the ATONEMENT."

NKJV (ESV, NIV, NASB, LSB) - "And not only that, but we rejoice in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom we have now received the RECONCILIATION."

Here is just a part of the whole article. Click on the link to see the whole Biblical explanation as to why "atonement" is the best word to use in this context and what several well known Bible commentators say about it.

Bibles that say ATONEMENT.

Not only has the King James Bible translated Romans 5:11 as "by whom we have now received the ATONEMENT" but so also do the following Bible versions: Tyndale 1525 - "by whom we have receavyd the ATTONMENT.", Coverdale 1535, The Great Bible (Cranmer) 1540 - "by whom we haue now optayned the ATTONMENT.", Matthew's Bible 1549, the Bishops' Bible 1568, the Geneva Bible 1557 to 1602 "by whom we haue nowe receiued the ATONEMENT.", The Beza New Testament 1599, The Bill Bible 1671, Whiston's Primitive N.T. 1745, the Clarke N.T. 1795, Webster's 1833 translation, The Morgan New Testament 1848, The Commonly Received Version 1851, The Revised New Testament 1862, The Dillard N.T. 1885, The Word of Yah 1993, the KJV 21st Century Version 1994, the 1998 Third Millennium Bible "by whom we have now received THE ATONEMENT.", God's First Truth 1999, Tomson New Testament 2002, The Evidence Bible 2003, The Resurrection Life New Testament 2005 (Vince Garcia), The Revised Geneva Bible 2005, the Bond Slave Version 2009, The Conservative Bible 2010, The BRG Bible 2012, and the Hebraic Roots Bible 2012 - "through whom we now received THE ATONEMENT."


The King James reading of ATONEMENT is totally accurate and it, unlike the modern versions that render this as "reconciliation", shows the final sacrifice of the Lamb of God as the fulfillment of all the Old Testament sacrifices which atoned for the sins of God's people.

I and many others will stick with the Book God has honored far above all others - the Authorized King James Holy Bible.

Whole article here -
Romans 5:11 Atonement or Reconciliation?

Another King James Bible Believer

God bless.
I don’t have to have a perfect translation to trust a perfect Savior.
 

SovereignGrace

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Ohh.... You mean the constantly changing Vatican supervised text NASBs that teach that the children of Israel DECEIVED God in Psalms 78:36? That one? The one that keeps changing both its Hebrew and Greek texts from one edition to the next? That NASB?
The Ever Changing NASBs - 1960, 1962, 1963, 1968, 1971, 1972, 1973, 1975, 1977, 1995 and 2020 editions.

Another King James Bible Believer

Can God be deceived? In Psalms 78:36 The NASB 1972-1995 editions, NET and the Legacy Standard Bible tell us that the children of Israel deceived God. Not just "tried to deceive" or "thought they had deceived" but deceived Him. Is God gullible? Is that even possible? Not even the ASV, ESV, NIV, NKJV read that way.


Another King James Bible Believer

"He that hath ears to hear, let him hear."

"But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant."

God bless.
Oh, you mean the KJV that’s had more revisions than you can shake a stick at?
 
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