Now, as to the question of original language inspiration, I have read that the
Motoyaku was translated from the KJV with reference to the Greek and German Bibles. If that is so, then would not the authority for the Motyaku rest in the original language, the English KJV? What a ridiculous assertion. If the Motoyaku is inspired and inerrant, then that is where the authority rests, not in the original language. For that matter, someone show me the original manuscripts of the KJV. The translators in their various "companies" must have handwritten various manuscripts as they worked. So where are those manuscripts? They must not exist! So it is foolish to say that the authority rests in the original of the
Motoyaku, the KJV.
In fact the
Motoyaku corrects the KJV. Let me show you how that works. In Acts 1:11, the KJV says, "This same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven." However, the
Motoyaku says, またきたらん。Notice the ん morpheme there. (A morpheme is a small sound with meaning, like =ed or -ing in English.) This morpheme signals possibility or doubt, as in "Jesus may come." Consider the exchatalogical implications!!! They are amazing!
Someone may object that in any translation, authority rests in the original language document, called the source document in translation theory. So the Hebrew and Greek Bibles should take precedence over the English, and then the English should take precedence over the Japanese Bible. Not so! A wonderful postmodern scholar, a fantastic philosopher from the fabled land of France, so powerful in war, with the name Jacques Derrida, teaches us differently, His philosophy of deconstructionism tells us that there is no truth (which we disagree with), but that we must tear everything down that we thought was true, and rebuild. Therefore in his translation theory, the target text (the
Motoyaku in this case) takes precedence over the original languages. Awesome! So our translation is authoritative over the original KJV!!