I don't really see what all that has to do with our discussion. I'd rather stay away from generalities about who's likely to believe what. Semantic games are also unhelpful.
The question is, when you read, "What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory—even us whom he has called, not from the Jews only but also from the Gentiles?"
Is your answer that we should prosecute him?
No, because I do not understand it the same way you do. I believe God knew Pharaoh would be rebellious from the beginning.
Exo 3:16 Go, and gather the elders of Israel together, and say unto them, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, of Isaac, and of Jacob, appeared unto me, saying, I have surely visited you, and seen that which is done to you in Egypt:
17 And I have said, I will bring you up out of the affliction of Egypt unto the land of the Canaanites, and the Hittites, and the Amorites, and the Perizzites, and the Hivites, and the Jebusites, unto a land flowing with milk and honey.
18 And they shall hearken to thy voice: and thou shalt come, thou and the elders of Israel, unto the king of Egypt, and ye shall say unto him, The LORD God of the Hebrews hath met with us: and now let us go, we beseech thee, three days' journey into the wilderness, that we may sacrifice to the LORD our God.
19 And I am sure that the king of Egypt will not let you go, no, not by a mighty hand.
20 And I will stretch out my hand, and smite Egypt with all my wonders which I will do in the midst thereof:
and after that he will let you go.
I believe God in his foreknowledge knows who will believe and who will not (John 6:64). God knew the elders would listen to Moses, God knew Pharaoh would not listen and refuse to let the Jews go. God knew that after he showed many wonders Pharaoh would finally let the Jews go. It does not say so, but it is safe to assume God knew Pharaoh would chase after the Jews in an attempt to destroy them.
The point is, Pharaoh deserved destruction. This is what is meant that he was "fitted to destruction".
Rom 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering
the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
Pharaoh deserved to be destroyed, he was fit or "fitted" for destruction.
God did not make Pharaoh this way, God never tempts any man to sin.
Jam 1:13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil,
neither tempteth he any man:
14 But
every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of
his own lust, and enticed.
God does not tempt ANY man, but EVERY man is tempted when he is drawn away of his OWN lust and enticed.
And if you go to Jeremiah 18 and read of the Potter, you will see God is not saying he unconditionally elects one person and unconditionally passes over another.
Jer 18:6 O house of Israel,
cannot I do with you as this potter? saith the LORD. Behold, as the clay is in the potter's hand, so are ye in mine hand, O house of Israel.
7 At what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, and to pull down, and to destroy it;
8 If that nation, against whom I have pronounced,
turn from their evil, I will repent of the evil that I thought to do unto them.
9 And at what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it;
10 If it do evil in my sight, that it obey not my voice, then I will repent of the good, wherewith I said I would benefit them.
11 Now therefore go to, speak to the men of Judah, and to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, saying, Thus saith the LORD; Behold, I frame evil against you, and devise a device against you: return ye now every one from his evil way, and make your ways and your doings good.
Paul was quoting Jeremiah 18 in Romans 9. This is HARDLY showing unconditional election. It is speaking of nations (which Paul is also doing in Romans 9) and says if a nation he has spoken evil of turns from their sins, he will turn from the evil he intended toward them. God also says that if he has spoken well of a nation to benefit it, if it turn from him and do evil he would turn from the good he had purposed toward them.
And this is what Paul is explaining in Romans 9, why God is turning from the Jews who were elect and sending the gospel to the Gentiles. Why? Because the elect Jews would not believe, but the Gentiles did.
Rom 9:30 What shall we say then? That the Gentiles, which followed not after righteousness, have attained to righteousness,
even the righteousness which is of faith.
31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;
God's election is hardly unconditional, he is rejecting the Jews because they did not believe but sought salvation through works. The Gentiles who were not elect before are now elect because they have believed.
So, I do not accept your view at all.