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The contradiction with the Christology

Mexdeaf

New Member
John Piper on "contradictions"-

"It is impossible to respect the Bible too highly, but it is possible to respect it wrongly. If we do not ask seriously how differing texts fit together, then we are either superhuman (and see all truth at a glance) or indifferent ( and don't care about seeing the coherence of truth). But I don't see how anyone who is indifferent or superhuman can have a proper respect for the Bible. Therefore reverence for God's Word demands that we ask questions and pose problems and believe that there are answers and solutions which will reward our labor with treasures new and old (Matthew 13:52)."

"There are hundreds and hundreds of (such) apparent disparities in the Holy Scripture, and we dishonor the text not to see them an to think them through to the root of unity."

(Brothers, We Are Not Professionals, pages 76,77)
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
When I found 2 verses in modern versions, these verses contradicted each other. That means that God contradicts Himself because the Bible is the God-speaking. If so, the Bible is wholly N.G. Look at these contradictions here:

Jesus said, “My testimony is not valid”

Jesus said, “My testimony is valid.”

Or

Jesus said, “My witness is not true”

Jesus said, “My witness is true.”
...
If the Bible CANNOT contradicts itself, therefore God CANNOT contradict Himself. The KJV is perfect for the doctrinal clarification.

John 5:31-33 (NIV, crosswalk.com edition):
"If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid.http://www.baptistboard.com/#cr-descriptionAnchor-1 32 There is another who testifies in my favor,http://www.baptistboard.com/#cr-descriptionAnchor-2 and I know that his testimony about me is valid. 33 "You have sent to John and he has testifiedhttp://www.baptistboard.com/#cr-descriptionAnchor-3 to the truth.

What contradiction? I do not see a contradiction here. in the NIV.
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
John 5:31-33 (nKJV, crosswalk.com editon):
"If I bear witness of Myself, My witness is not true. 32 There is another who bears witness of Me, and I know that the witness which He witnesses of Me is true. 33 You have sent to John, and he has borne witness to the truth.

Says the same think as the NIV What is the contradiction?

John 5:31-33 (KJV1769-ish edition, e-sword.com edition):
If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.
Joh 5:32 There is another that beareth witness of me; and I know that the witness which he witnesseth of me is true.Joh 5:33 Ye sent unto John, and he bare witness unto the truth
 
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Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Sorry, I just do not see a contridiciton in the NIV BIBLE, in the nKJV BIBLE nor in the KJV1769 BIBLE nor among the three Bibles.
 

windcatcher

New Member
Sorry, I just do not see a contridiciton in the NIV BIBLE, in the nKJV BIBLE nor in the KJV1769 BIBLE nor among the three Bibles.
The verses Askjo is using come from verses in John chapter 5 and John chapter 8. Askjo offers these as examples of contradiction when he doesn['t even completely quote them, give the reference... (so you either have to read his mind or look 'em up yourself) nor does he take them in context.... but concludes that God must contradict himself.....

It also looks like he's abandoned this issue rather than address any of our postings.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Askjo is good at that, when being badly defeated on some silly point. For example, he sez he's NOT KJVO, but when I askJo what other versions he recomments, he won't answer.
 

Askjo

New Member
So why do you think John the Apostle used the same word in both verses?

If John, under the inspiration of the Spirit used the same word in both verses, why did the KJV change it? Is the KJV at fault for changing the inspired word of God? Or was John's use of the same word in both verses not inspired?

And why is the NIV wrong for doing what John did?
Did John the apostle speak English?

The KJV translators were very wise to rightly translate these words on these two passages.

Do you believe that?

The NIV translators were not wise to mistranslate that word.

No, my point was that even in the KJV, there is the supposed "contradiction." When one reads it in context, it is not a contradiction.
Record and witness is speaking of the same thing here. Just because the KJV changes the English term doesn't make the contradiction go away. When it does go away is when the context of the passages is read.
Are Record and Witness SAME meaning?

What is the difference between "testimony" and "bear witness"? I'd like to hear your definitons.
Now let me ask you what the Greek word is in each verse. What did the original writer use? Did he use "testimony" or "bear witness"?

Modern versions translators wrongly translated from Greek word to English word. You apparently denied it.

Since the KJV and most English NT translations are based on Greek, it is the Greek meaning of the word that matters. English does not define or correct the Greek.
These two verses have ONE word in one modern version, but they already contradicted themselves there. Therefore they show that Jesus Christ contradicted Himself. See NIV and NKJV.


The KJV has no plm because of two words on two verses. Therefore the KJV shows that Jesus Christ did not contradict Himself.

So if the modern versions use the same English word, they have a contradiction, but if God uses the same Greek word, that's ok...
The words in the KJV mean the same thing, it is the context that keeps it from a contradiction. Have you studied synonyms yet? They are words that have the same meaning.

http://thesaurus.com/browse/record

Synonyms of record
almanac, annals, archive, archives, chronicle, comic book, diary, directory, document, documentation, entry, evidence, file, history, inscription, jacket, journal, legend, log, manuscript, memo, memoir, memorandum, memorial, minutes, monument, note, paper trail, register, registry, remembrance, report, script, scroll, story, swindle sheet, testimony, trace, track record, transcript, transcription, witness, writing, written material
synonyms are not what I talked about, but the dictionary. For illustration, a word, “love” in Greek is 4 different Greek words. Does phileo mean sexual love? If no, I see you disagree with my obvious point on 2 verses.

Askjo, it is to your shame that you do not study the 17th century language of the KJV.
From Webster's 1828 English Dictionary
I see you missed one word, record there. Look it up again.

I'd just ask the OP: Did God get it wrong using the same word? Answer that question and I will answer your condemnation of the modern versions using the same word.
English? Modern version translators did. KJV translators did not.


John 5:31-33 (NIV, crosswalk.com edition):
"If I testify about myself, my testimony is not valid. 32 There is another who testifies in my favor, and I know that his testimony about me is valid. 33 "You have sent to John and he has testified to the truth.

What contradiction? I do not see a contradiction here. in the NIV.
Is one word ok to jump “forth and back” on 2 passages that I showed you? Let me say for illustration:

One word must be on ONE side, NOT 2 sides! Are you saying that Jesus already contradicted Himself saying my testimony, that is valid AND not valid, jumped forth and back? Modern versions would love to join with you.

Askjo is good at that, when being badly defeated on some silly point. For example, he sez he's NOT KJVO, but
when I askJo what other versions he recomments, he won't answer.
Yes, I answered it to you then YOU called me a liar in other forum. You brought this up here from other forum.
 

jbh28

Active Member
Did John the apostle speak English?
No, but he used the same word in both places. If it is a contradiction to use the same word in English, then it is also in Greek. You see, in the Greek, we see that the context keeps it from the contradiction even though the same word is used. Same thing with English, context shows there is no contradiction even with the same word being used.
The KJV translators were very wise to rightly translate these words on these two passages.
The words mean exactly the same thing. Record, witness and testimony are all referring to the same thing.

The NIV translators were not wise to mistranslate that word.
how is it a mistranslation to translate the SAME word the SAME way both times? You don't even make sense.
Are Record and Witness SAME meaning?
YES


These two verses have ONE word in one modern version, but they already contradicted themselves there. Therefore they show that Jesus Christ contradicted Himself. See NIV and NKJV. [/quote]Did the Greek contradict when it used ONE word. Your logic is lacking severely.
The KJV has no plm because of two words on two verses. Therefore the KJV shows that Jesus Christ did not contradict Himself.
No, the KJV used to different words with the same meaning. That doesn't stop the contradiction, context does though.
synonyms are not what I talked about, but the dictionary. For illustration, a word, “love” in Greek is 4 different Greek words. Does phileo mean sexual love? If no, I see you disagree with my obvious point on 2 verses.
phileo means brotherly love. The problem is your example is backwards. The passage has the same Greek word in both places. I showed you from the dictionary that the two English words that the KJV used have the SAME MEANING. Using a synonym doens't stop a contradiction. Context, in this case, shows it isn't a contradiction. I would love to be in a room when you tried to defend the lack of contradiction by showing two synonyms. that would be laughable.
English? Modern version translators did. KJV translators did not.
So God can use the same word and it is ok, but in English it is wrong? Are you a troll just making up stuff because nobody can be that bad at basic logic.
 

jaigner

Active Member
If the Bible CANNOT contradicts itself, therefore God CANNOT contradict Himself. The KJV is perfect for the doctrinal clarification.

That logic in no way indicates that the KJV is the right one.

Maybe what is perceived "dishonesty" is actually either new scholarship using new sources or a correction of a translation mistake.
 

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Did John the apostle speak English?

The KJV translators were very wise to rightly translate these words on these two passages.

Do you believe that?

The NIV translators were not wise to mistranslate that word.

Are Record and Witness SAME meaning?



Modern versions translators wrongly translated from Greek word to English word. You apparently denied it.

These two verses have ONE word in one modern version, but they already contradicted themselves there. Therefore they show that Jesus Christ contradicted Himself. See NIV and NKJV.

The KJV has no plm because of two words on two verses. Therefore the KJV shows that Jesus Christ did not contradict Himself.

synonyms are not what I talked about, but the dictionary. For illustration, a word, “love” in Greek is 4 different Greek words. Does phileo mean sexual love? If no, I see you disagree with my obvious point on 2 verses.

I see you missed one word, record there. Look it up again.

English? Modern version translators did. KJV translators did not.

Is one word ok to jump “forth and back” on 2 passages that I showed you? Let me say for illustration:

One word must be on ONE side, NOT 2 sides! Are you saying that Jesus already contradicted Himself saying my testimony, that is valid AND not valid, jumped forth and back? Modern versions would love to join with you.

Yes, I answered it to you then YOU called me a liar in other forum. You brought this up here from other forum.

So you are saying that God was wrong to use one word in His original writing because it's ONE word that is written in the Greek. It is the KJV translators who chose to use synonyms and thus make it seem like it is two different words. The modern translators were faithful to the original languages (in whatever manuscript form you wish to choose) and kept it the same word.

Let's look at some facts. The word that is translated "witness/record" is "martyreō". It is used 79 times in the New Testament. In the King James Version, this ONE word is translated as 7 different terms and 11 miscellaneous terms. It is translated as: bear witness, testify, bear record, witness, be a witness, give testimony, have a good report, honest report, well reported, charged, gave. These are all the translations of one word. They mean the same thing. God used one word. Man used many words in place of one word. Who is right?
 

franklinmonroe

Active Member
... I see you missed one word, record there. Look it up again. ...
RECORD', v.t. [L. recorder, to call to mind, to remember, from re and cor, cordis, the heart or mind.]

1. To register; to enroll; to write or enter in a book or on parchment, for the purpose of preserving authentic or correct evidence of a thing; as, to record the proceedings of a court; to record a deed or lease; to record historical events.
2. To imprint deeply on the mind or memory; as, to record the sayings of another in the heart.
3. To cause to be remembered.
So ev'n and morn recorded the third day.
4. To recite; to repeat. [Not in use.]
5. To call to mind. [Not in use.]
I'm glad to be of service.
 

Askjo

New Member
The modern translators were faithful to the original languages (in whatever manuscript form you wish to choose) and kept it the same word.
Not true. Most MV defenders falsely said that many times.
The word that is translated "witness/record" is "martyreō".
You see, you said 2 DIFFERENT words here above. Why not witness/witness? or Why not "testimony/testimony"?
 

Askjo

New Member
RECORD', v.t. [L. recorder, to call to mind, to remember, from re and cor, cordis, the heart or mind.]

1. To register; to enroll; to write or enter in a book or on parchment, for the purpose of preserving authentic or correct evidence of a thing; as, to record the proceedings of a court; to record a deed or lease; to record historical events.
2. To imprint deeply on the mind or memory; as, to record the sayings of another in the heart.
3. To cause to be remembered.
So ev'n and morn recorded the third day.
4. To recite; to repeat. [Not in use.]
5. To call to mind. [Not in use.]
I'm glad to be of service.
Great! Let's look at 3 words: witness, testimony and record. What is witness? What is testimony? What is record?
 

annsni

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Not true. Most MV defenders falsely said that many times.

Can you show me where they were not faithful to the original manuscripts?

You see, you said 2 DIFFERENT words here above. Why not witness/witness? or Why not "testimony/testimony"?

Because they are called "synonyms". They mean the same thing. In the original language (in whatever manuscript evidence you wish to use), there is one word used. The modern translators are faithful to that and use one word.
 

windcatcher

New Member
Great! Let's look at 3 words: witness, testimony and record. What is witness? What is testimony? What is record?

In the context of the OP, which, btw let me remind you that YOU authored, it wasn't a word you were contesting..... it was two phrases (a group of words with meaning) taken out of the context of two different stories, which, when compared together, give a superficial appearance of a contradiction of meaning. After framing them as a contradiction, you then assert that both cannot be true .......... and if only one can be true then the Bible is not all true and if the Bible is the Word of God does God lie?

What is the problem?
Is it that the words are translated the same in the KJV?
Is it that both sentences say different things?
Is it the version of the Bible, which you've later introduced in the thread?

I gave you in my first post in this thread, the breakdown of the context which is EVERYTHING to seeing there is no contradiction.

Could it be that either you are enjoying an argument over nothing and trying to make an issue of it for the 'joy' of arguing
OR
you have a mental (and probably a spiritual) block to receiving the truth?

When reading the Bible, realize that in the orignal autographs there were no paragraphs and limited punctuation, no verses, no chapters. These are 'inventions' of modern reference to help us find specific passages, and, in most cases, keep the order of one subject together.

It was as if Jesus was saying, and I'm paraphrasing which means this is not a Bible quote " You people ask for a witness to my authority. [you people have a saying] If I give testimony of my self my testimony is not true. [I know your traditions] I'll give you three, which is more than you require of each other when you receive and take confidence in each other of your countrymen: I have the witness of the scriptures which tell of me, the testimony of John, whom you believed, and the power of the Father in the works which I do, which you see are good. Now what is your problem that you still will not believe?" John 5 with the unspoken inference (of thought content) presented as brackets taken in the context. (Which I don't recommend but am taking a liberty to do. Another way of saying it is that it is a smiggen of sarcasm by which Jesus addressed by mirroring in his speech the very thoughts they [the people] carried in their heads while answering in reply.)

In John 8, it was the pharisees who declared Jesus had no authority and that he was testifying of himself. As his works and miracles and prophesy had the power of the Father's authority and blessing, and WAS a testimony which could not be honestly denied, he acknowledged that even IF he gives testimony of himself, yet his testimony IS TRUE. [This was in contradiction to their 'tradition' that they should not trust the testimony of one. They were blind to the evidence and determined to prove him a liar....regardless of the evidence.... just like people do today..... trying to find fault in God's Word. While there may be differences and problems in translating from one language to the next.... and the interpretation we later give to words as they change in common usage.... the ultimate and bottom line is that GOD is TRUE and NEVER LIES and that He has promised to preserve his word: We can depend that His word is true....... and if we have problems with it then it is due to human error: And given the scholarly discipline of so many who've involved themselves in the critique and inspection of the various translations, in most or all cases, the problem is within the reader.]

In cruising through the various English versions of the Bible, it helps to keep in mind that without a different phrasing of words, or using different words, there would be no different versions or copy-write protections for the scholars or publishers. In considering the variance of versions, it is helpful to realize also that to those who depend on the Bible for their spiritual growth, knowledge and faith in God the Savior and Lord, a version which did not stick to truth would not sell...... which is the bottom line for most publishers. The KJV of the Bible has the most limited vocabulary...... so the same word is often translated the same. More recent versions use synonyms as seemingly more appropriate to passage or context (which increases the vocabulary used) and more modern or customary phrasing.

While I have a preference for the poetic and reverent beauty, simplicity, consistency of meaning, stability, and the scholarly intensity with which the KJV was translated, I think it is serious offense and discouragement to the confidence we have in God's Word, if, without some very obvious errors specific to a translation, we start casting a generalized doubt upon the authority and infallibility of God's Word.

The most important calling we have as Christians is to live the life and bear the witness. Few of us are called to that area of specialty whereby by scholarship and intensity we are properly refined to expose errors, critique, and lower confidence in a particular translation, knowing that this charge may also contribute to the barriers and resistance the natural man already has in his heart to resist the truth. This does not mean that errors (if present) shouldn't be pointed out..... but that one who does so should first have a good understanding and find collaboration of other scholars and trustworthy believers that a charge of 'error' is valid
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
These are all the translations of one word. They mean the same thing. God used one word. Man used many words in place of one word. Who is right?

One nice thing about Ukraine. They only have ONE Bible translation- and it ain't the KJV. :smilewinkgrin:
 

franklinmonroe

Active Member
Great! Let's look at 3 words: witness, testimony and record. What is witness? What is testimony? What is record?
First, tell us which of the several meanings of "record" you believe is being used by Jesus in this passage. Personally, I think the KJV translators intended the archaic Definition 4. "To recite; to repeat".
 
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