True on animal sacrifices, but on Passover Christ died and would not be available for the Sedar, so Christ, being smart as he is, held the Last Supper or Sedar before his death within the Passover week. </font>[/QUOTE]Your's is the usual explanation; it deserves contemplation because that is how most honest Christian have tried to understand it for all the centuries now : THAT IS WHAT MAKES IT DIFFICULT. They never proved another option; another possible explanation! The most obvious lies right at hand, that Jesus' actual and OWN, 'EATING' and 'DRINKING' of the PASSOVER, is explained and given, right there in the Scriptures as it tells of Jesus' EXPERIENCE of it - the PASSOVER of God - IN GETHSEMANE, where He prays to the Father to help Him empty the cup given Him to drink!Originally posted by prophecynut:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Gerhard Ebersoehn:
the Passover-meal - the Seder - could not have been eaten before the passover lamb had been slaughtered!
Notice that Jesus Himself did not eat or drink anything at the table of the Last Supper - that meal had ONE purpose for Jesus Christ: it was "TO PREPARE" for what lay ahead for Him, namely, the BREAKING of His Body for sin and the DRINKING of His Blood for sin - Jesus' 'observance' of the Passover Meal (Which once again, doesn't show any resemblance with the Jewish thing called 'Seder').
This was something NEW - the Christian Institution of "The Lord's Supper" as it is CALLED - it was N
T observance.