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The doctrine of preservation

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Mexdeaf

New Member
OK, here you go, you said this just yesterday;



I call this a criticism of folks like me who are KJBO. You imply that we cause great division in the church, your friend WEPT because of the division KJVO was going to cause.

I absolutely call this a criticism of KJVO.

What about the MV folks, don't they cause division too? It takes two to tango.

Baloney- that was no criticism, it was statement of fact of something that C4K saw 20 years ago.

For my part, I've never seen a division over translations in a MV church- never. Seen plenty of it on the other side, though.
 

Winman

Active Member
Baloney- that was no criticism, it was statement of fact of something that C4K saw 20 years ago.

For my part, I've never seen a division over translations in a MV church- never. Seen plenty of it on the other side, though.

I must have hit the hive, the bees are swarming now. :laugh:
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
So tell me once and for all, are you CT only? or TR only? or KJB only? or any particular version only?

I doubt you will respond.

I am not bound to and will not be bullied into acceding to your demands. I have made my position very. very clear here many, many times.
 
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NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
So the question remains - does God's preservation of translations refer to the very words of God, or just the sense of His eternal word?

If it is not the very words of God, what is so wrong with using dynamic equivalence in translation work? Why is formal equivalence so important if the words really don't matter?
 

Mexdeaf

New Member
So the question remains - does God's preservation of translations refer to the very words of God, or just the sense of His eternal word?

If it is not the very words of God, what is so wrong with using dynamic equivalence in translation work? Why is formal equivalence so important if the words really don't matter?

IMHO, yes- the words DO matter.

However, just as in soteriology where we have the tension between the free-will of man and the sovereignty of God, I think there is tension between the interpretation (an act of man) and the preservation (an act of God) of the Scriptures.

That's really what we are discussing here, isn't it? Or am I way out in left field? (A position I often find myself in- LOL).
 

NaasPreacher (C4K)

Well-Known Member
This is, to me, the crux of the matter. If God preserves His words (not just His word) to every translation He would have to superintend every translatorand reinspire them to insure His perfect words are transmitted to every language group. It is no longer a translation by man, but a rebreathing of the scripture by God.

That is the only way we could be totally assured that we have the perfect word of God in our languages.
 
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Mexdeaf

New Member
This is, to me, the crux of the matter. If God preserves His words (not just His word) to every translation He would have to superintend every translator and reinspire them to insure His perfect words are transmitted to every language group. It is no longer a translation by man, but a rebreathing of the scripture by God.

That is the only way we could be totally assured that we have the perfect word of God in our languages.

Agreed.
:thumbsup:
 

Winman

Active Member
This is, to me, the crux of the matter. If God preserves His words (not just His word) to every translation He would have to superintend every translatorand reinspire them to insure His perfect words are transmitted to every language group. It is no longer a translation by man, but a rebreathing of the scripture by God.

That is the only way we could be totally assured that we have the perfect word of God in our languages.

Well, it goes without saying that every translation cannot be perfect. How many versions of the Bible do we have in English alone? Hundreds? And they cannot all be the preserved word of God.

I would agree that preservation applies to accurate copies (because the original autographs no longer exist) in the original languages. But this does not mean all translations must have error, that is an assumption on your part.

Tell me WHY a translation MUST contain error.




[off topic]
 
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