1689Dave
Well-Known Member
You are forcing a shade of meaning the text does not support.you should have given the other references from this lexicon:
"buy, acquire as property of believers, for whom Christ has paid the price... w. his blood: w. gen. of price...you were bought for a price 1 Cor 6:20 ; 7:23. 2 Pt 2:1"
You will note that 2 Peter 2:1 is clearly grouped with the two passages from 1 Corinthians, both which speak of the Atonement.
Likewise J H Thayer in his Greek lexicon, "figuratively: Christ is said to have purchased his disciples i. e. made them, as it were, his private property, 1Co_6:20 (this is commonly understood of god; but cf. Joh_17:9-10); 1Co_7:23 (with the genitive of price added; see τιμή, 1); 2Pe_2:1."
The Arminian view of Christ’s atonement not only contradicts the biblical definition of Christ’s redemptive work, but also contradicts itself. An examination of three options regarding Christ’s death will prove that Arminianism is irrational. Jesus Christ paid the price and endured God’s wrath against sin for either: 1) all the sins of all men, 2) all the sins of some men, or 3) some of the sins of all men. If number 3 is true, then all men still have the guilt of some sins to answer for. This would mean that all men will go to hell, for it only takes the guilt of one sin to merit eternal damnation. If one holds to option 2, that Christ died for all of the sins of some men, then one believes that only some men (i.e., God’s elect) will be saved and go to heaven. This is simply biblical Christianity; that Christ actually achieved the salvation of all of God’s elect.
Brian Schwertley. (n.d.). Limited Atonement by Brian Schwertley.