swaimj said:
I don't see this in scripture either. Grace is received by faith, not by eating or drinking a substance. Since I disagree with this reformed position I do not refer to myself as a reformed baptist (among other reasons). Their position decidedly disagrees with the historic baptist view.
Your right about it being in disagreement with the historic baptist view. My confession of faith teaches,
"Worthy receivers, outwardly partaking of the visible elements in this ordinance, do then also inwardly by faith, really and indeed, yet not carnally and corporally, but spiritually receive, and feed upon Christ crucified, and all the benefits of his death; the body and blood of Christ being then not corporally or carnally,
but spiritually present to the faith of believers in that ordinance, as the elements themselves are to their outward senses.
( 1 Corinthians 10:16; 1 Corinthians 11:23-26 )
I looked back at your post and saw you said grace it recieved by faith. The confession is saying this here, but something that is happening during the communion. My only comparrison is hearing the word of God. I believe when we hear, read, sing the Word of God that through our faith the Holy Spirit is giving us grace to be encouraged, built up, sanctified, renewed in our minds, et. So we could say that the preaching of the Word of God is a means of God's grace to us. I think they are saying this is also true of the Lord's Table.
The Scripture support for the 1689 statement is:
"The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?"
And,
"For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread: And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me. After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, this cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me. For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord's death till he come."
The context of the first verse was to admonish the Christians to keep themsevles from idolatry by not eating meat sacrificed to idols. A comparrison was made that Israel according to the flesh when they ate of sacrifices on the altar partook of the altar. And the concerning idols, the Apostle would not have us fellowship with devils.
So, without doubt the Lord's Table is a communion with the Lord, or Kononia. The definition of the Greek term is "fellowship, association, community, communion, joint participation, intercourse, intimacy."
Now if 1 Cor is teaching that the cup and bread are themselves the communion with Christ, and not just a represenation of it, then the 1689 is a true statement of the Scriptures, and I need to reform my view.
Thanks for bringing this point to bear. This is clear evidence of the benefit of these discussions when they provoke us to deeper study, and not just cause strife.