Wait. There hasn't been the same Bible for 400 years. There are two King James Bibles - the 1611 and the 1769. One of them is right. One of them is wrong.
Which do you use? Probably the 1769. Now don't get me wrong. I have a 1769 King James and read it along with the NIV, ESV, NASB, and a couple more.
Which is right in these instances? I am NOT trying to put a blight on the King James - I don't believe in that. I am just trying to get you to see there is no perfect Bible that man has translated.
Joshua 3:11 -
- 1769 - "Behold, the ark of the covenant of the Lord of all the earth passeth over before you into Jordan."
- 1611 - "Behold, the Arke of the Couenant, euen the Lord of all the earth, passeth ouer before you, into Iordan.
- Is it the Ark passing before those people or the Ark and the Lord? These two Bibles say different things.
Ezekiel 24:7 - [This is in reference to Jerusalem who would not "cover the blood" [metaphorically speaking] of their great murderous sins.] "Uncovered blood" required God's judgment. They would not repent. God would judge. Read verses 6-8 for the full understanding.]
- 1769 - "For her blood is in the midst of her; she set it upon the top of a rock; she poured it not upon the ground, to cover it with dust;..."
- 1611 - "For her blood is in the middest of her: she set it vpon the toppe of a rocke, she powred it vpon the ground to couer it with dust:”
- Did Jerusalem, this "bloody city" as God calls her, metaphorically make an attempt to "cover the blood" of their sinful murders as was prescribed? In other words, did they repent or not? These two Bible contradict each other.
I like the King James. I read it. It is not perfect. Nor has it been the same Bible since 1611.