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The Inspiration

Plain ol' Ralph

New Member
And also of note: just how many of the populus do you know speak Greek and Hebrew fluently?

The "dilemma" is when men introduce what they really can't discern beyond the Spirit, that is why they introduce modern versions trying to keep up with ever-changing society; God doesn't change.

I'm sorry that the KJB is some sort of dilemma to yall, but it's assurring to know what the Word of God is, as well as isn't.
 

Pastor KevinR

New Member
Originally posted by Plain ol' Ralph:
And also of note: just how many of the populus do you know speak Greek and Hebrew fluently?

The "dilemma" is when men introduce what they really can't discern beyond the Spirit, that is why they introduce modern versions trying to keep up with ever-changing society; God doesn't change.

I'm sorry that the KJB is some sort of dilemma to yall, but it's assurring to know what the Word of God is, as well as isn't.
At the same time no one speaks 17th century English, either, if they did speak this way, they would be looked upon as weird. But strangely, so many expect God to speak only in the 17th C English. As far as Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek; these are the languages God chose to inspire His Word, so it would do any believer good to do his best to learn these languages, or at least be familar w/ them.
thumbs.gif
 

Johnv

New Member
Originally posted by Askjo:
The inspiration means "God-Breathed."

Which does the inspiration refer to?
In the stictest sense, this verse was originally referring to the OT. The NT had not yet been compiled, and much of the NT had not yet even been penned yet. Note that 2Tim 3:16 does not say that scripture is inspired, it says that scripture is given by inspiration.

For the Christian community today, though, to adhere to the belief that scripture as we know it (OT/NT) is inspired in the same manner is appropriate. However, we must understand what we mean by the Word of God. The NT Greek differentiates between rhema and logos. The word of God is not scribbled texts. The Word of God is the message contained in those scribbled texts. If we cannot understand that, we cannot understand scripture, nor can we comprehend what God is sayng to us in scripture.
 

Archangel7

New Member
Originally posted by Plain ol' Ralph:

Yeah, but the majoirty of the communicating world speaks English so we have to stick with the KJB to know what the Lord wants all men to know, not just a select few that have too much time on their hands
There are those who read both Greek and English. What are they to do when the Greek text disagrees with the KJV's translation of it?
 

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Originally posted by Orvie:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by HankD:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Bro C4K, I respect you greatly too & I'm so thankful everyone here loves my stick as the Word of God.
Granny, I am surprised that someone from "diXie" calls the KJV a "stick".

What ever happened to the Sword of the Lord?

HankD
</font>[/QUOTE]that stick is in Murfeesboro, TN...uh....nevermind!
</font>[/QUOTE]Well, I'm in Murfreesboro, TN...Am I the stick??? LOL

;)

AVL1984
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Granny Gumbo:Bro C4K, I respect you greatly too & I'm so thankful everyone here loves my stick as the Word of God.

Yes, we do...and if that stick is adequate for you, fine. But remember that stick came from a TREE that has many sticks.

Glad to see you don't criticize ME for using the same stick you do, plus quite a few others. After all, GOD grew the tree with all its sticks for our use.
 

robycop3

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Plain ol' Ralph:And also of note: just how many of the populus do you know speak Greek and Hebrew fluently?

Not enuff to make translations moot.



The "dilemma" is when men introduce what they really can't discern beyond the Spirit, that is why they introduce modern versions trying to keep up with ever-changing society; God doesn't change.

The history of the Scriptures in English show that God was causing His word to keep up with the language. After all, isn't God in charge of the language itself as well as His word?

I'm sorry that the KJB is some sort of dilemma to yall, but it's assurring to know what the Word of God is, as well as isn't.

The KJV isn't the dilemma...it's the subject of a man-made false doctrine that seeks to make the KJV something it isn't, nor was ever intended to be. The pushers of that doctrine say in effect that God retired in 1611 & no longer updates His word as the language changes. The pushers of the KJVO myth have the dilemma...when faced with the undeniable evidence that their doctrine is wrong, they have the dilemma of continuing to believe it or not. Many of them go through the process of trying to justify the myth, but most of'em eventually either realize KJVO is just an urban legend, or become so immersed in trying to prove it that their reality is replaced by a dream world. I've seen examples of each kind here.
 

Slambo

New Member
Yes, we do...and if that stick is adequate for you, fine. But remember that stick came from a TREE that has many sticks.
All of that sounds great,BUT,the MVs do NOT come from the same tree,sorry.
 

Slambo

New Member
The history of the Scriptures in English show that God was causing His word to keep up with the language. After all, isn't God in charge of the language itself as well as His word?
Where does it show in history that God blessed any Bible based on Egyptian texts??
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Originally posted by Plain ol' Ralph:
Yeah, but the majoirty of the communicating world speaks English so we have to stick with the KJB to know what the Lord wants all men to know, not just a select few that have too much time on their hands
I hear that
in Red China 50 Million Chineese a year
are getting cell phones.

You statement "the majoirty of the communicating world speaks English" is incorrect.
 

natters

New Member
Slambo said "Where does it show in history that God blessed any Bible based on Egyptian texts??"

The Traslators of the KJV answer your question:

"But, when the fulness of time drew near, that the Sun of righteousness, the Son of God should come into the world, whom God ordained to be a reconciliation through faith in his blood, not of the Jew only, but also of the Greek, yea, of all them that were scattered abroad; then lo, it pleased the Lord to stir up the spirit of a Greek Prince (Greek for descent and language) even of Ptolemy Philadelph King of Egypt, to procure the translating of the Book of God out of Hebrew into Greek. This is the translation of the Seventy Interpreters, commonly so called, which prepared the way for our Saviour among the Gentiles by written preaching, as Saint John Baptist did among the Jews by vocal." (emphasis added)

"It is certain, that that Translation was not so sound and so perfect, but it needed in many places correction; and who had been so sufficient for this work as the Apostles or Apostolic men? Yet it seemed good to the holy Ghost and to them, to take that which they found, (the same being for the greatest part true and sufficient) rather than making a new, in that new world and green age of the Church, to expose themselves to many exceptions and cavillations, as though they made a Translations to serve their own turn, and therefore bearing a witness to themselves, their witness not to be regarded." (emphasis added)

"The translation of the Seventy dissenteth from the Original in many places, neither doeth it come near it, for perspicuity, gravity, majesty; yet which of the Apostles did comdemn it? Condemn it? Nay, they used it...which they would not have done, nor by their example of using it, so grace and comment it to the Church, if it had been unworthy the appellation and name of the word of God." (emphasis added)
 

Ed Edwards

<img src=/Ed.gif>
Originally posted by Slambo:
Where does it show in history that God blessed any Bible based on Egyptian texts??
The Church of Egypt has survived
nearly 2000 years, including 1300 years
in the center of the Islamic World.
Note that the Coptic church existed with
a Coptic Bible for over 800 years before
there was a language that could roughly
be called "English".

The following paragraph comes from:
The Christian Coptic Orthodox Church Of Egypt

//The Coptic Church is based on the teachings of Saint Mark who brought Christianity to Egypt during the reign of the Roman emperor Nero in the first century, a dozen of years after the Lord's ascension. He was one of the four evangelists and the one who wrote the oldest canonical gospel. Christianity spread throughout Egypt within half a century of Saint Mark's arrival in Alexandria as is clear from the New Testament writings found in Bahnasa, in Middle Egypt, which date around the year 200 A.D., and a fragment of the Gospel of Saint John, written using the Coptic language, which was found in Upper Egypt and can be dated to the first half of the second century. The Coptic Church, which is now more than nineteen centuries old, was the subject of many prophecies in the Old Testament. Isaiah the prophet, in Chapter 19, Verse 19 says "In that day there will be an altar to the LORD in the midst of the land of Egypt, and a pillar to the LORD at its border."//

We note that the Church of Christ in
Egypt is Cristocentric instead of
Anglocentric. Sorry, the Orthodox
Church was active in Egypt for 600 years
before the Anglo and the Saxon quit
worshiping tree.

Recall much of what passes for the History
of the Church comes from Roman Catholic
Church (RCC) sources.
 

Johnv

New Member
Originally posted by Plain ol' Ralph:
... the majoirty of the communicating world speaks English so we have to stick with the KJB...
Two points of error in your post:

1 - The language spoken by more people on the planet is Chinese, not English. If your contention is to give them a translation in their language, then that disqualifies the KJV, since it is not written in Chinese.

2 - The most common form of English spoken in the world is American Business English, not Elizabethan English. If your contention is to give them a translation in their language, then that disqialifies the KJV, since it is not written in American Business English.
 

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Originally posted by Slambo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Yes, we do...and if that stick is adequate for you, fine. But remember that stick came from a TREE that has many sticks.
All of that sounds great,BUT,the MVs do NOT come from the same tree,sorry. </font>[/QUOTE]I would have to disagree. They all started from the same tree. Just because they branched out differently doesn't mean a thing. That is a natural progression for things.

AVL1984
 

AVL1984

<img src=../ubb/avl1984.jpg>
Originally posted by Slambo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />The history of the Scriptures in English show that God was causing His word to keep up with the language. After all, isn't God in charge of the language itself as well as His word?
Where does it show in history that God blessed any Bible based on Egyptian texts?? </font>[/QUOTE]Where does it show in history He hasn't? Any time someone is saved through the use of the MV's they are blessed by God. You're dealing with faulty premises for your statements/questions, slambo.

AVL1984
 
Where does it show in history that God blessed any Bible based on Egyptian texts??
Nowhere...Neither is it in Scripture(for which I started a thread,with not so much as a peep from anyone;not one letter of support for Egypt being where Scripture came from).Church history,and Scripture-- Acts 11,12,and 13--cannot be changed by slick,smooth-talking,pious hucksters..


And Natters,dont EVEN try to play the pre-Christian "LXX" card...Even if there Was(NOT!) a pre-Christian Septuagint the JEWS that allegedly(NOT!) translated it were in violation of what God laid down in Scripture(Jeremiah 44:26 for starters) concerning Egypt and the Jews...
 

michelle

New Member
--------------------------------------------------
At the same time no one speaks 17th century English, either, if they did speak this way, they would be looked upon as weird. But strangely, so many expect God to speak only in the 17th C English. As far as Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek; these are the languages God chose to inspire His Word, so it would do any believer good to do his best to learn these languages, or at least be familar w/ them
--------------------------------------------------

Ah, but you see, we may not speak in that exact manner as the 17th century language, but we DO and CAN UNDERSTAND IT, and SPEAK MUCH of it, unlike a foriegn language. God does not require of his saints to KNOW and UNDERSTAND a foriegn language in order to KNOW and UNDERSTAND and READ and STUDY the SCRIPTURES DAILY, ecspecially when He has made it evident HE has provided them to us in our own language.


love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
 

Pastor KevinR

New Member
Originally posted by Slambo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Yes, we do...and if that stick is adequate for you, fine. But remember that stick came from a TREE that has many sticks.
All of that sounds great,BUT,the MVs do NOT come from the same tree,sorry. </font>[/QUOTE]I'm not sure if the "tree" or "stream" analogy is so reliable. However, for the sake of this post, one MV comes from the same "tree' as the KJV; namely the NKJV ;)
 
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