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The 'Johannine Comma', does it belong in the Bible?

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I am sorry but it is not the first. GA 629 is the first to have the Comma in the body of the text and it is dated to 1362.

Since this is the earliest Greek manuscript with the Comma in the body of the text, meaning there is no other Greek manuscript source which is ealrier, what do you think could have been the copyist source for the Comma?
the original.
 

Origen

Active Member
its possible - stranger things have happened.
I believe its hidden in the Vatican library.
I understand. There does not appear to be a path for our conversation to move forward. Thank you for your time.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Actually the preserved ancient documents discovered in London are evidence that it is possible for original hand written documents to be preserved for 2000 years even without divine intervention.
 

Origen

Active Member
Actually the preserved ancient documents discovered in London are evidence that it is possible for original hand written documents to be preserved for 2000 years even without divine intervention.
I do not believe I ever said it was not possible. The issue here, however, does not really concern possibility.

Even if we assume that some portion of the original document did survive, there is still no evidence that the scribe of GA. 629 used it as a source, that he knew of it for that matter, or that it has the relevant portion.
 
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atpollard

Well-Known Member
Even if we assume that some portion of the original document did survive, there is still no evidence that the scribe of GA. 629 used it as a source, that he knew of it for that matter, or that it has the relevant portion.
... Sure there is! The copyist included the comma. THAT is the evidence. :)
[Sorry, I just couldn't resist.]

Hello Origen!
Really glad to see you here.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I do not believe I ever said it was not possible. The issue here, however, does not really concern possibility.

Even if we assume that some portion of the original document did survive, there is still no evidence that the scribe of GA. 629 used it as a source, that he knew of it for that matter, or that it has the relevant portion.
true, but it is within the realm of possibility - IMO of course. There is also the possibility of a very early copy (no longer extant or lost) with the Comma. We just don't know.
 

Walpole

Well-Known Member
Why don't you guys just remove it from your canon, as you did with the Deuterocanonical books?

Problem solved.
 

atpollard

Well-Known Member
Why don't you guys just remove it from your canon, as you did with the Deuterocanonical books?

Problem solved.
Because the 'comma' may or may not be words added to the original autograph (I think that is the term), but the words themselves are not untrue or contra-biblical (contradicting other scripture).

The Deuterocanonical books are both not original (in many cases) and teach lies (in many other cases), so it is really comparing a 'comma' Orange to a bushel of Deuterocanonical rotten apples. ;)
 

Origen

Active Member
true, but it is within the realm of possibility - IMO of course. There is also the possibility of a very early copy (no longer extant or lost) with the Comma. We just don't know.
You can debate all day long about what might be or could be possible. Nevertheless the fact is there no evidence of either. There simply isn't any.

So as I said in post 28 there does not appear to be a path for our conversation to move forward. And again thank you for your time and for the discussion.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You can debate all day long about what might be or could be possible. Nevertheless the fact is there no evidence of either. There simply isn't any.

So as I said in post 28 there does not appear to be a path for our conversation to move forward. And again thank you for your time and for the discussion.
but you keep responding.
 

Walpole

Well-Known Member
Because the 'comma' may or may not be words added to the original autograph (I think that is the term), but the words themselves are not untrue or contra-biblical (contradicting other scripture).

The Deuterocanonical books are both not original (in many cases) and teach lies (in many other cases), so it is really comparing a 'comma' Orange to a bushel of Deuterocanonical rotten apples. ;)


How were Christians duped into believing the Deuterocanoical books were inspired for 1500 years?

--> There is no canon matching the Protestant 66-book one in all of Christian history.
 
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