An accusation was not assigned to you. The defined and accurate term KJV-only was presented as a correct description of some of your own stated reasoning in your posts. The accurate term was properly used concerning what you yourself state.
This book entitled Thou Shalt Keep Them edited by Kent Brandenburg in its definitions defined King James Only as follows: “a broad title for any individuals and institutions who read, study, preach, and use only the King James Version as an English translation” (p. 11).
Gary Webb maintained that the Bible doctrine of verbal preservation of Scripture “leads men to adopt the ‘King James Only’ position” (Brandenburg, Thou Shalt Keep Them, p. 20).
Anthony, does the Bible doctrine of verbal preservation of Scripture lead you to adopt the KJV-only position?
According to this definition of King James only in this book edited by Kent Brandbenburg, Anthony, would your stated view be described as KJV-only?