When John the Baptist made his public appearance, the kingdom of heaven was the theme of his preaching (Mt. 3.2). It was also the substance of what Jesus and his disciples preached (Mt. 4.17; 10.7). It is, therefore, very important. What did they mean that the kingdom of heaven was "at hand?" Many interpret the phrase as a temporal indicator. For example, the Dispensationalists claim that the kingdom of heaven was at hand temporally speaking, but because the Jews rejected Jesus as the Messiah, it was postponed. Preterists claim that the kingdom of heaven was at hand temporally speaking because Jesus did in fact come approximately forty years later, and the kingdom was set up at that time. Forty years is certainly not at hand if we are to interpret the time indicators in a strictly literal fashion as they insist, but that is beside the point. However, is that the way in which we are to interpret it? Is "at hand" to be interpreted as an indication of time?
The Pharisees maligned Jesus as exorcising demons by the power of Satan, and Jesus replied, "But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you." (Mt. 12.28) Again, when he was demanded by the Pharisees concerning the coming of the kingdom of God, he said, "Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you." (Lk. 17.21) Most translations translate "within you" as "among you" or something equivalent.
When Jesus sent out his disciples, he commanded them, "And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand. Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils: freely ye have received, freely give." (Mt. 10:7, 8) Were not his miracles and wonders and signs and the authority he gave his disciples over these things incontestable proof that the kingdom of heaven was at hand, that is, already present to some degree through the ministry of Jesus and his disciples?
What I am proposing is that perhaps the phrase "at hand" is not a proof text for the supposed kingdom that was at hand but then postponed or a proof text that Jesus promised to return within forty years and set it up.
The Pharisees maligned Jesus as exorcising demons by the power of Satan, and Jesus replied, "But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is come unto you." (Mt. 12.28) Again, when he was demanded by the Pharisees concerning the coming of the kingdom of God, he said, "Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you." (Lk. 17.21) Most translations translate "within you" as "among you" or something equivalent.
When Jesus sent out his disciples, he commanded them, "And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand. Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils: freely ye have received, freely give." (Mt. 10:7, 8) Were not his miracles and wonders and signs and the authority he gave his disciples over these things incontestable proof that the kingdom of heaven was at hand, that is, already present to some degree through the ministry of Jesus and his disciples?
What I am proposing is that perhaps the phrase "at hand" is not a proof text for the supposed kingdom that was at hand but then postponed or a proof text that Jesus promised to return within forty years and set it up.