1689Dave
Well-Known Member
Was Jesus lying? Arent most tares and not wheat? Do you think only true believers read the bible?So if 50% of believer's believe one text over the other does that mean 50% are not really His sheep? John 8:47.
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Was Jesus lying? Arent most tares and not wheat? Do you think only true believers read the bible?So if 50% of believer's believe one text over the other does that mean 50% are not really His sheep? John 8:47.
Definitely, if they reject the trinity doctrine as stated in the Ecumenical Creeds.Does that mean those who do not agree with you about the Comma, do not hear Jesus voice but you do? In other words they are NOT true believers?
They really have.God bless you, HeirofSalvation! You've posted the absolute truth about those two. They've both been at this for years all across the internet. It's really sad.
It is the difference between the Greek texts. It is the same word in both texts (i.e. εὐδοκία) but the TR is in the nominative case and the CT is in the genitive case. That one letter changes how the whole clause should be translated\understood.The difference is not just in the spelling of one word, the whole "with whom He is pleased" is not in the KJV.
Who rejected the Trinity? I believe in the Trinity.Definitely, if they reject the trinity doctrine as stated in the Ecumenical Creeds.
So why not the comma when Cyprian quoted it in the 2nd century from a "non-existant" source....supposedly.Who rejected the Trinity? I believe in the Trinity.
(1) Because there is no evidence it was part of the Greek manuscript tradition.So why not the comma when Cyprian quoted it in the 2nd century from a "non-existant" source....supposedly.
How do you try to prove something doesn't exist without lessening your credibility?(1) Because there is no evidence it was part of the Greek manuscript tradition.
(2) It does not even show up in the Greek until ca. 1300 years later.
(3) It does not show up in any Old Latin manuscripts until the 7th century.
(4) The two oldest Vulgate manuscripts (i.e. Codex Fuldensis and Codex Amiatinus) omit it.
(5) It nor is it found in the Peshitta.
And yet I still believe in the Trinity.
If there is no evidence to believe something exist, and there is evidence to believe it did not exist (as cited above but not addressed), then there is no justifiable reason to believe it.How do you try to prove something doesn't exist without lessening your credibility?
How do you try to prove something doesn't exist without lessening your credibility?
THANK YOU!No one is trying to prove something doesn't exist. No one can prove a negative. However, the burden of proof for establishing something exists, in light of no evidence that it exists, is on the person who makes the claim it DOES exist.
I personally, accuse you, of spending countless hours denigrating it, the men who translated it, the King of England who commissioned it, the men who defend it, the greek texts underlining it, and the persons who love and defend it...
That, I DO accuse you of..
Tell me I'm wrong....
God bless you, HeirofSalvation! You've posted the absolute truth about those two. They've both been at this for years all across the internet. It's really sad.
No, they honestly hate the KJV.
.
But, I still find that it was absolutely MASTERFULLY done.
The KJV is, and will remain (like Shakespeare) the height of prose in the English language.
It will not be replicated again. To despise it, or denigrate it is ignorance of the first degree.
So why not the comma when Cyprian quoted it in the 2nd century from a "non-existant" source....supposedly.
No one is trying to prove something doesn't exist. No one can prove a negative. However, the burden of proof for establishing something exists, in light of no evidence that it exists, is on the person who makes the claim it DOES exist.