The most abused Greek word is???

[JesusFan]

δυναμις dunamis often simply meaning "ability" thus translated at times "power".

How many times have I heard people say, we get our word dynamite from this word. Therefore this is an explosive kind of power (Acts 1:8 for an example).

Of course there are multiple fallacies going on. But the one that is most obvious is that the Greeks never had anything close to something that resembled dynamite. So how in the world could the power be dynamite? Maybe dynamic (whatever that means).

Christians... stop using anachronistic logic and English root etymologies to prove a definition of a Greek word!!! You sound stupid.

Ah, another budding DA Carson on the BB!

You are correct on Greek fallacies here, but would say most "misunderstood" word in the Greek to me was "study your Greek charts" for the verbs/nouns/word frequency counts etc!

 

[preachinjesus]

Perhaps we can expand the OP a bit and consider overused aspects grammar...like the aorist tense.

Every time I hear some good intentioned, but under informed preacher reference the use of the aorist (if they pronounce the term correctly) I just roll my eyes.

 

[Greektim]

Perhaps we can expand the OP a bit and consider overused aspects grammar...like the aorist tense.

Every time I hear some good intentioned, but under informed preacher reference the use of the aorist (if they pronounce the term correctly) I just roll my eyes.

I don't hear that one as much these days. The people that I hear abuse Greek are ones who are not in ministry and have only learned their incorrect assumptions from their pastor who would be the one that would make the aorist mistake as well.

 

[JesusFan]

I don't hear that one as much these days. The people that I hear abuse Greek are ones who are not in ministry and have only learned their incorrect assumptions from their pastor who would be the one that would make the aorist mistake as well.

I am still trying to "forget' all of those discussions involving the use of the Greek Article, and how it has been used to prove/disprove things in the bible!

 

[Greektim]

I am still trying to "forget' all of those discussions involving the use of the Greek Article, and how it has been used to prove/disprove things in the bible!

Here's a challenge (which you already passed), never ever call it "definite article" insinuating that Greek has indefinite articles. As you put it, Greek simply has articles.

Maybe we should do a thread of of an example of the most abused Greek or Hebrew grammar/syntax/or lexis.

 

[JesusFan]

Here's a challenge (which you already passed), never ever call it "definite article" insinuating that Greek has indefinite articles. As you put it, Greek simply has articles.

Maybe we should do a thread of of an example of the most abused Greek or Hebrew grammar/syntax/or lexis.

Remember to this day, being told early on that it is far better to be an expert in "just" the English Bible, know how to get proper exegesis from the scriptures, than to "try" to look smart by just grabbing a strongs concordance, and start playing around with those word definitions and cite sources!

 

[DHK]

Here's a challenge (which you already passed), never ever call it "definite article" insinuating that Greek has indefinite articles. As you put it, Greek simply has articles.

Maybe we should do a thread of of an example of the most abused Greek or Hebrew grammar/syntax/or lexis.

You mean like the J.W. NWT translation of John 1:1 "a god."

 

[Greektim]

You mean like the J.W. NWT translation of John 1:1 "a god."

Huh??? The NWT supplies the English indefinite article b/c "god" in the Grk is anarthrous. But I don't see the relationship to not calling the Greek article "definite" since it has other meanings and functions than definiteness.

 

[JesusFan]

Huh??? The NWT supplies the English indefinite article b/c "god" in the Grk is anarthrous. But I don't see the relationship to not calling the Greek article "definite" since it has other meanings and functions than definiteness.

What is interesting on John rendering the Greek as he did, is that he was making it quite clear tht the word existed along side "The God", and that whatever God was/is, the Word was is also, but made also clear NOT same as the Father, but was distinct from Him..

he was proving diety of jesus, but also preserving the concept of God being 1 but also more than 1!

Cults err on both sides of this, either deny God in truine being, or else Jesus is not God!

Also, reading up on scholars views... Amazing how JW misquote them to "prove" jesus was not God, as theytake word 'divine" as less than God, but that was term used to mean same as Diety, so Jesus was called God by scholars using term divine!


Think a big problem is many try to impose English usuage of these terms into the Greek, while Greek has it own rules of Grammer/Syntex as compared to the English words!

One instance NEB might make better sense of this, as they rendered it as being what God was, the Word is also!