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The New Interpreters’s Study Bible (no doubt by accident) makes a case for Preterism!

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
I agree that a metaphor is frequently used in Scripture but I think the passage from Acts cannot be written off that simply.

the Bible should be interpreted as being the plain sense, literal meaning, unless good reason not to be, and in this case, think that the event was best seen as literally as recorded!

Much of the second coming events must be seen in same way also!
 

asterisktom

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
the Bible should be interpreted as being the plain sense, literal meaning, unless good reason not to be, and in this case, think that the event was best seen as literally as recorded!

Much of the second coming events must be seen in same way also!

This mode of interpretation would have been given a hearty Amen ... by the Jews of the 1st century as recorded several times in the Gospels. John's Gospel alone has, I believe, about eight examples of this literalistic application of God's word.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Acts 1:9-11 refutes Hyper-preterism

I hope that you will see my point that there are different kinds of seeing in Scripture. When Jesus told Nathan that he would "see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man" what exactly did He prophesy? What did Nathan actually see? If his seeing was anything less than a visible sight of clearly visible angels why should it seem strange to argue for seeing Christ the same way?

The meaning of the word 'see' is determined in English by the context. If I were to say to someone, "I saw your sister yesterday" he would naturally suppose that I had seen her with my eyes, unless of course I added, "In a dream." If I say to someone, "I see what you mean," he will understand that I am using the word 'see' in the sense of comprehending. The context decides.

Greek is no different. The context will determine the meaning, although the wide variety of words for 'see' used will also be helpful. Now let's look at Acts 1:9-11.

v 9. 'Now when [Jesus] had spoken these things, while [the Apostles] watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight'

The Greek word translated 'watch' here in the NKJV is blepo, which is one of the main words for seeing. I recommend a word search, which will reveal that in the vast majority of cases it means to see with the eyes. The Greek construction is a Genitive Absolute: 'With them watching' would be a literal translation. The NIV translates it as 'Before their very eyes'. If you look also at Luke's other account of the Ascension (Luke 24:50f), it seems that as He was in the act of blessing them, with arms raised, He levitated and rose into the sky while the Apostles watched. He rose upwards until a cloud obscured the Apostles' sight of Him.

v10. 'And while they looked steadfastly towards heaven as He went up , behold, two men stood by them in white apparel.'

They had been looking up as the Lord rose and remained looking (open-mouthed, no doubt) after He disappeared. The Greek word atenizo always means to look closely, or to fasten the eyes upon something.

v11. 'Who also said, "Men of Galilee, why do you stand gazing up into heaven? This same Jesus who was taken up from you into heaven, will so come in like manner as you saw Him go into heaven."'

The Greek word for 'saw' here is theaomai which again always means to 'view' or 'observe attentively' with the eyes.

I don't know what could be clearer than this. The Apostles saw Jesus rise at least part of the way towards heaven. He left visibly; He will return visibly. People saw Him leave; people will see Him return. He left with a physical body (Luke 24:38-43); He will return in a physical body. A cloud parted them from Him; a cloud will part to reveal Him (Rev 1:7; cf. 19:11).

These verses utterly refute Hyper-preterism. It is just the end of the story. The context and the language simply will not allow the idea of an invisible departure, and will therefore not allow the idea of an invisible return.

Steve
 

JesusFan

Well-Known Member
This mode of interpretation would have been given a hearty Amen ... by the Jews of the 1st century as recorded several times in the Gospels. John's Gospel alone has, I believe, about eight examples of this literalistic application of God's word.

also approved and used by Apostle peter/paul and John!
 
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