...I don't see a lack of clarity but a lack of understanding. If I say that God predestined sin but didn't cause it and therefore is not the author of it, that's pretty clear to me. I'm saying He decreed to permit it. I know some people get hung up on the word "predestined" and equate it to direct causation, but I think they're forcing a definition on the word that is not there.
Excellent post/articulation J.D.. To your question that you posed to the PBs concerning 'the predestination of all things' over on the General Discussion Forum, my basic answer was, “that word 'predestinate' in the KJB NT is used only 4 times, and that only in reference to God choosing a people for his own possession.” As near as I can tell, 'proorizw' is actually used 6 times in the NT, and I'm still of the opinion that it's used only in reference to God's intent to redeem a people for his own possession. I'll elaborate:
27 For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed , both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together ,
28 For to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel
determined before to be done . Acts 4
29 For whom he did foreknow , he also did
predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
30 Moreover whom he did
predestinate , them he also called : and whom he called , them he also justified : and whom he justified , them he also glorified . Ro 8
7 But we speak the wisdom of God in a
mystery, even the
hidden wisdom, which God
ordained before the world unto our glory:
8 Which none of the princes of this world knew : for
had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory. 1 Cor 2
5 Having
predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,
11 In whom also we have obtained an inheritance , being
predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will: Eph 1
I like Skandelon's differentiation between 'permissive and decretive' decrees here. Look at the passage from Corinthians; God “ordained before the world” the crucifixion, BUT,
had the ones that actually crucified Him known of that decree, they would not have done it. The jealousy/envy/animosity of the Jews towards Christ was already inherent within them, but God permissively used their hatred to bring about the crucifixion simply by hiding His intent from them. Thus the parables of Christ. He spoke to them in riddles so that they would not understand. JMHO.