SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
How did Paul answer the Jailor about what to do to get saved? or Philip and the Eunuch?
You have to look at the whole of Scripture and not selecting certain parts. What about Peter on Pentecost
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How did Paul answer the Jailor about what to do to get saved? or Philip and the Eunuch?
How did Paul answer the Jailor about what to do to get saved? or Philip and the Eunuch?
Returning to the topic the Calvinists are trying to derail:
Metonymy is a figure of speech where something is not called by its own name or description, but by something closely related. For example, the White house for a Presidential administration, or Hollywood for the film industry.
It is possible that the "righteousness of God" does not actually refer to God's perfection, His own righteousness, but rather is used metonymically for God's redemptive work through Christ.
Thus to be seeking the righteousness of God through (by means of) faith in Christ actually refers to seeking redemption in Christ where we are made perfect, holy and blameless, thus having the righteousness (perfection) of God.
Lets see if this possibility works for the verses that use the phrase.
Romans 1:17, For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, “But the righteous man shall live by faith.”
The "it" at the beginning of the verse refers to the gospel of Christ. Faith to faith is understood in various ways, but the simplest idea is from beginning to end, thus God's revelation is from beginning to end about redemption in Christ Jesus. Thus, God's redemptive work by means of Christ is revealed in the gospel, from beginning to end.
Romans 3:5, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? The God who inflicts wrath is not unrighteous, is He? (I am speaking in human terms.)"
The Greek word translated "demonstrates" means highlights, makes more clear or in other words demonstrates the need for the redemptive work of God through Christ.
Romans 3:21, But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets,
Here we see that the redemptive work of God through Christ is apart from the work of the Law which brings knowledge of our sin. And this redemptive work is witnessed in the Old Testament scriptures.
Romans 3:22, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction;
This verse strongly suggests that the righteousness of God is being used metonymically for God's redemptive work through faith in Jesus Christ.
Romans 10:3, For not knowing about God’s righteousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God.
Here we see the lost have the opportunity to subject themselves to the redemptive work of God by means of putting their faith in Christ Jesus. The cause of the failure in this case is ignorance of the gospel, rather than a lack of spiritual ability.
2 Corinthians 5:21, He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
Lets sidestep the mistaken view that Jesus became sin, rather on the cross the Lamb of God became a sin offering. What is key to the topic is that we obtain the righteousness of God when God puts us "in Him" where we are made perfect, holy and blameless, i.e. made righteous.
Read the end of the post, presented in Red.What exactly are you trying to say in this thread
Read the end of the post, presented in Red.
And I thought by presenting every verse and showing how it referred to the redemptive work of God as evidence for the conclusion was needed. Sorry my effort seems wasted on you.So you take all this time for the last paragraph
And I thought by presenting every verse and showing how it referred to the redemptive work of God as evidence for the conclusion was needed. Sorry my effort seems wasted on you.
And I thought by presenting every verse and showing how it referred to the redemptive work of God as evidence for the conclusion was needed. Sorry my effort seems wasted on you.
Well, we can all be blinded by preconceptions...Your presentation is very confusing
Yes it was...The second paragraph in the OP is not Biblical
Yes it was...
As opposed to says you. Note the lack of any effort to discuss the OP, just one "taint so" post after another.says you!
As opposed to says you. Note the lack of any effort to discuss the OP, just one "taint so" post after another.
Yes, I know you have posted one taint so post after another, and I am doing my best to prevent you from derailing discussion. Your personal attacks are there for everyone to see.I have already but you chose to ignore it
Returning to the topic the Calvinists are trying to derail:
Metonymy is a figure of speech where something is not called by its own name or description, but by something closely related. For example, the White house for a Presidential administration, or Hollywood for the film industry.
It is possible that the "righteousness of God" does not actually refer to God's perfection, His own righteousness, but rather is used metonymically for God's redemptive work through Christ.
Thus to be seeking the righteousness of God through (by means of) faith in Christ actually refers to seeking redemption in Christ where we are made perfect, holy and blameless, thus having the righteousness (perfection) of God.
Lets see if this possibility works for the verses that use the phrase.
Romans 1:17, For in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith; as it is written, “But the righteous man shall live by faith.”
The "it" at the beginning of the verse refers to the gospel of Christ. Faith to faith is understood in various ways, but the simplest idea is from beginning to end, thus God's revelation is from beginning to end about redemption in Christ Jesus. Thus, God's redemptive work by means of Christ is revealed in the gospel, from beginning to end.
Romans 3:5, "But if our unrighteousness demonstrates the righteousness of God, what shall we say? The God who inflicts wrath is not unrighteous, is He? (I am speaking in human terms.)"
The Greek word translated "demonstrates" means highlights, makes more clear or in other words demonstrates the need for the redemptive work of God through Christ.
Romans 3:21, But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets,
Here we see that the redemptive work of God through Christ is apart from the work of the Law which brings knowledge of our sin. And this redemptive work is witnessed in the Old Testament scriptures.
Romans 3:22, even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction;
This verse strongly suggests that the righteousness of God is being used metonymically for God's redemptive work through faith in Jesus Christ.
Romans 10:3, For not knowing about God’s righteousness and seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God.
Here we see the lost have the opportunity to subject themselves to the redemptive work of God by means of putting their faith in Christ Jesus. The cause of the failure in this case is ignorance of the gospel, rather than a lack of spiritual ability.
2 Corinthians 5:21, He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.
Lets sidestep the mistaken view that Jesus became sin, rather on the cross the Lamb of God became a sin offering. What is key to the topic is that we obtain the righteousness of God when God puts us "in Him" where we are made perfect, holy and blameless, i.e. made righteous.
The righteousness of God is Hie own innate moral perfection, which He imputes to those are now saved in the Lord Jesus!Yes, I know you have posted one taint so post after another, and I am doing my best to prevent you from derailing discussion. Your personal attacks are there for everyone to see.
First, James is not addressing "believers" as brethren, but fellow Israelites.
James was written to them , but also applies to all of us now!Bingo! Hodges first rule of interpretation:
1. The Scriptures are to be taken in the sense attached to them in the age and by the people to whom they were addressed.
You and the OP appear to apply this "literal" hermeneutic pretty selectively. Is James' letter then only relevant to Israelites who are scattered (1:1) and not to those still in the land? Is it addressed only to men (pick your masculine noun or pronoun out of any verse in the chapter) and not women? Shall we ignore what Jesus said to His disciples in John 14 because they are all Israelites and hand-picked disciples, and we aren't? This sort of inconsistency is unpersuasive to say the least.Van said: ↑
First, James is not addressing "believers" as brethren, but fellow Israelites.
Bingo! Hodges first rule of interpretation:
1. The Scriptures are to be taken in the sense attached to them in the age and by the people to whom they were addressed.