Let's stick to the text and examine the usage of the word porneia.
I am not talking about sinning in general I am talking about porneia which is the word translated as fornication.
Read your Greek text and you will see what I mean. You can also use a Greek concordance and see how it is used in the NT, the intertestamental period, and the LXX.
What a joke, they won't do that. The definition of pornea keeps popping up time after time, but it is conveniently ignored because that throws their whole legalistic POV down the tubes. Sad.:tear: It is impossible to reason with the unreasonable. Even Paul said, "Let us reason together..."
From the other thread:
The divorced person is not an ex. He is currently in the state or position which God does not approve of, and if he remarried, then he is in a state of adultery. The ex-gambler was a former gambler, no longer in the grip of that sin. The ex-wife beater no longer is in an active role of beating his wife. Those ex's have given up, turned away from their sinful lifestyles. The divorced is currently at the table of divorce and partaking of it.
Like I said above, the divorced is in the current act of being in an unscriptural state.
With that line of reasoning, every Christian on the planet who had a divorce filed against them (even if they weren't unfaithful to their spouse) ever since 33 AD is an adulterer and won't go to heaven according to their POV. :tear:
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