So then for your purposes it really only needed to say "to the lost be aware that there is a time coming soon when the filthy will remain filthy still and the unrighteous will remain righteous still" .
There was no real purpose in your view to say to the saved "there is a time coming in the future when the holy will remain holy still and the righteous will remain righteous still".
Yet the text presents both - as the change that is coming in the future.
Bible details matter even in this case. That is why we make such a fuss about "sola scriptura" testing of doctrine.
If just "ignoring details when they don't fit a certain tradition" were the acceptable form of "sola scriptura testing" there could never have been a Protestant Reformation.
in Christ,
Bob
No, it tells us a person cannot lose salvation in heaven. But that does not mean a person can lose salvation now.
You cannot simply make scripture say what you DESIRE it to say. This is what many here at BB do. They say Romans 3 teaches inability when it says no such thing.
Now, let's look at the scripture closely.
Rev 22:11 He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
Now honestly Bob, does this verse say one word about a saved person being able to lose their salvation up until this day? Does it?
It simply tells you that the unsaved will forever remain filthy and unjust, and the saved will forever remain righteous and holy.
Don't read into scripture what is not there, this is how much false doctrine is formed.