The Word became Flesh and dwelt among us ( Jn 1:14)

[standingfirminChrist]

And where do you read that Jesus only got His glorified body after His ascension?

Where do you read He got it before?

 

[TCGreek]

Where do you read He got it before?

So are we only going to get our glorified bodies when we appear before the Father in Heaven?

 

[standingfirminChrist]

So are we only going to get our glorified bodies when we appear before the Father in Heaven?

We will receive our glorified bodies at the moment we see Christ... at that moment we shall be like Him for we shall see Him as He is.

 

[DHK]

He did not receive His Glorified Body at the Resurrection. He did not receive the Glorified Body until He presented Himself to the Father.

How did he present himself (in his humanity) to the Father if he did not already have his glorified body.
How did a weakened body, already dead for three days, rise through the grave clothes and the tomb itself if it had not been a glorified body?

His being able to appear and disappear does not mean the body was glorified. Not sure where you read that it means it was.

Then what kind of body was it? The only other body was the body that was dead and in the grave.

Had Christ's body been vile before His arrest, torture, and capture, His blood would have been vile as well, for the life of the flesh is in the blood.

That is the reason he was able to live among men as we are able to live. The life of the flesh is in the blood. He had blood just like you and I. But His blood was shed on the cross.

He had to be that Lamb sacrifice without blemish and without spot as Peter wrote. Had He a vile body as you claim, then His sacrifice was not sufficient to satisfy the Father... and not one person on this earth would be saved today.

Being without blemish and spot refers to his sinlessness not his flesh.

 

[TCGreek]

We will receive our glorified bodies at the moment we see Christ... at that moment we shall be like Him for we shall see Him as He is.

1. In 1 Cor 15:35 we read, "But someone will say, "How are the dead raised? And with what body do they come?"

v. 38, "God gives it a body jus as He wished..."

v. 42, So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown a perishable body, it is raised an imperishable body.

v. 43. "IT is sown in dishonor, it is raised in glory; it is sown in weakness, it is raised in power.

2. Keep in mind that Jesus "has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleeep" (1 Cor 15:20).

3. BTW, this took place at the Resurrection for Jesus and it will take place at our Resurrection.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

Christ's body was not sown in corruption. 1 Corinthians 15 is speaking of the Believer, not Christ Himself.

 

[cowboymatt]

What does "sown in corruption" mean? That could mean so many things, couldn't it?

 

[TCGreek]

Christ's body was not sown in corruption. 1 Corinthians 15 is speaking of the Believer, not Christ Himself.

Paul disproves your argument about the believer's body at the resurrection.

 

[TCGreek]

What does "sown in corruption" mean? That could mean so many things, couldn't it?

Well, Scripture is the decider.

"It is sown perishable." Isn't our body in its current form perishable and subjection to the weakness of this life?

That is why Paul says in another place that we are awaiting the redemption of our bodies (Rom 8:23).

 

[cowboymatt]

Well, Scripture is the decider.

"It is sown perishable." Isn't our body in its current form perishable and subjection to the weakness of this life?

That is why Paul says in another place that we are awaiting the redemption of our bodies (Rom 8:23).

I completely agree with you. I think that the confusion comes from the poor translation "sown in corruption," which means something quite different from "It is sown perishable."

Who doubts that Jesus' body was perishable. He died. LOL.

 

[DHK]

Christ's body was not sown in corruption. 1 Corinthians 15 is speaking of the Believer, not Christ Himself.

1 Corinthians 15:3-4 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

The above is the gospel, according the Scriptures, as we know it.

Let's conjecture for just a moment. The Bible says that he rose again on the third day. For three days and nights he was in the grave. Suppose, that on the second day, the disciples somehow had access to the tomb. What would they have found? Would the body of Jesus still have been there? Since he didn't arise until the third day the answer is yes. What condition would the body be in? Normally, a body, after two days would stink. The maggots would have started to eat away at it.
Martha knew this. After four days she protested to Jesus: "But Lord he stinketh." She knew that in spite of embalming, the body at death undergoes a process of corruption, decay, degeneration. That is what was happening with the body of Jesus. It was probably happening at a much faster rate with the body of Jesus because of all the open wounds that he had. Infection would have set in very quickly. After two days the body would have indeed been very corrupted, and would have "stunk."
There is no way that one could possibly say that this body was not a corruptible body, for it was.
But the disciples were not able to enter the tomb on the second day. They entered on the first day of the week, after Christ had risen from the dead. He was not there. When they saw him some time later they saw him in an incorruptible body, a glorified body, the same body that he has right now as he sits at the right hand of the throne of God ever making intercession for us.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

Christ's body was not sown in corruption. The psalmist prophesied that He would not see corruption. The Word of God is true.

 

[TCGreek]

Christ's body was not sown in corruption. The psalmist prophesied that He would not see corruption. The Word of God is true.

The Word of God is true and you should quote it all, not just part of it.

1. "He looked ahead and spoke of the resurrection of Christ, that He was neither abandoned to Hades, nor did His flesh suffer decay" (Acts 2:31, NASB).

2. To let His body remain in the grave beyond three days and never to be raised, was to "suffer decay," but His resurrection countered that.

 

[DHK]

Christ's body was not sown in corruption. The psalmist prophesied that He would not see corruption. The Word of God is true.

I have demonstrated to you otherwise. I believe you have a misunderstanding of Scripture.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

I have demonstrated through Scripture otherwise. How could Christ live in a corruptible body and not see corruption?

The answer, He couldn't.

 

[DHK]

I have demonstrated through Scripture otherwise. How could Christ live in a corruptible body and not see corruption?

The answer, He couldn't.

You can't quote partial verses and make a case.
You can't make a case through opinion alone.
You can't make a statement without any Scriptural verification.
TC just finished explaining the Scripture that you say makes your case, but points out that you only quote part of the verse, thus taking it out of context. All you are holding on to is an opinion which is not Scriptural and without any defence.

 

[standingfirminChrist]

You cannot add to Scripture to make a case either. Nowhere does Scripture say Christ had a corruptible body. Nowhere does Scripture say His body was decaying those days He was in that tomb.

Yet you say the Spotless Son of God was corruptible.

 

[DHK]

Yet you say the Spotless Son of God was corruptible.

He was. Why do you insist on taking Scripture out of context. The person is more than flesh and bones. It was Christ that was spotless, not his flesh! He was the sinless lamb of God before the foundation of the world. Was his FLESH before the foundation of the world? I think not! He was the sinless, perfect, spotless Son of God. He is. Not his flesh. But Christ Himself. Flesh, in and of itself, is not sinful. Can you demonstrate that it is?

 

[Heavenly Pilgrim]

DHK: Flesh, in and of itself, is not sinful. Can you demonstrate that it is?

HP: I believe if we could start from this premise in our discussions, we may find far more agreement with each other. I could not agree more with you here. :thumbs:

If flesh in and of itself is not sinful, neither can sin be passed on via the flesh. Sin is not based in the propensities of the flesh, but rather in the will yielding itsef to them in a selfish manner as opposed to a benevolent manner. The heart of sin is seated in the will of man, not in the flesh.

 

[Eliyahu]

1. I'm in no way a docetist. I accept the Scripture as it is. Do I understand in an intricate manner every aspect of the Incarnation? Absolutely not!

Typical accusation found in Roman Catholic.

2. Jesus' likeness of Rom 8:3 is the same likeness of Phil 2:7. Paul uses the same Greek term in both cases: homoiwmati from homoiwma.

The verse indicate that Jesus looked like only son of man though He was Son of God and Son of Man.
Do you believe Jesus was a servant not the Son ?

Read John 8:31-36.

3. And we have Paul and Barnabas using a form of this Greek word in Acts 14:15: "We are also men of the same nature [homoiopaqhs]as you."

You are confused between the different similarities.

4. The Hebrew writer says that Jesus partook of flesh and blood like the rest of us (Heb 2:14).

Does this verse tell you Jesus took the sinful flesh?

5. How am I guilty of blasphemy? Quite a serious charge against another brother in the Lord.

Please answer clearly:

Did Jesus offer the Sinful Flesh to God?