Dr. Walter
New Member
And thou shalt love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy might. - Deut. 6:5
The term "heart" here does expresss the conscious inner nature of man whereas the term "soul" has reference to the outward expression of that conscious inner nature in the "life" or "as a man thinketh in his heart SO IS HE" in his life. The term "strength" is the power that makes the inward conscious nature expressed in the outer life. This is the only way that the COMPLETE inward and outward expression of obedience by man can be conveyed. This is the immediate context, that God desires the COMPLETE conscious expression of obedience both inwardly and outwardly and that is why the context goes on to emphasize the outward expression as both the inward and outward are inclusive in these three terms.
The point here in Deuteronomy is the same as in Matthew that man is responsible to express complete CONSCIOUS obedience to God so that the inward conscious expression of this obedience is manifest in everything said and done or his expressed life is that of obedience as well.
In addition, the term "heart" as used in the Old Testament is not the only word used to express the conscious inward aspect of man. When the intellectual aspect is emphasized the Hebrews use the term "mind" or directly associate terms to express the intellectual aspect with the term "heart" (e.g. "for as a man THINKETH in his heart so IS HE). The Old Testament uses the term "heart" in some cases is used to simply emphasize the emotional aspect of affection rather than intellectual.
My point is this. Your argument is only valid if the Old Testament used only the term "heart" for the inward conscious expression of man OR if the Old Testament did not use other terms to express varied aspects of the inward man OR if the Old Testament did not use the term "heart" in contexts to emphasize intellectual versus emotional aspects. None of these are true. Therefore, Christ may add terminology to this command in order to express the same variety of aspects found in the use of "heart" in the entire Old Testament context as well as other Old Testament synonyms used either separately from the term "heart" but have to do with the conscious inner self-expression or terms which emphasize the very same aspects that the Hebrew term "heart" expresses in certain contexts (intellect/mind or affection/heart).
Moreover, when "heart" and "mind" are found in the same context the term "heart" emphasizes the emotional/affections and the "mind" emphasizes the intellection/thinking aspect of the inward conscious self.
Therefore you argument is mute as you cannot possibly restrict the conscious inner self-expression to the one word "heart" in the Old Testament nor can you deny that the term "heart" in the Old Testament is not used to emphasize DIFFERENT aspects of the inner conscious self nor can you deny that other Hebrew terms are used to emphasize those varied aspects of the inward conscious self. Thus, it is perfectly legitimate for Christ to ADD other terms in His use of this quotation for broadening the understanding of the inward and outward conscious expression of the personality, especially when the broader New Testament context confirms such distinctions (Heb. 4:12; 1 Thes. 5:23).
Mt 22:37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
Mr 12:30 And thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength: this is the first commandment.
Mr 12:33 And to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the soul, and with all the strength,
Lu 10:27 And he answering said, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy strength, and with all thy mind;
In Deuteronomy the term "heart" stands for the entire inward conscious expression, whereas the term "soul" takes in the entire outward expression of that inward conscious self and the term "strength" is the modus operandi between the two.
In the Gospel accounts the Lord adds the term "mind" or "understanding" with the term "heart" in order to give the fuller expression of the "heart" content in the Old Testament so as to emphasize both the emotional/affection aspect with the intellectual/mind aspect. The term "soul" gives the outward obedient expression of both mind and affection and the term "might" or "strength" gives the modus operandit between the inward and outward expression.
There is no contradiction, no conflict between either the context of Deut 6 or with the overall use of the term "heart" in the Old Testament or with its synonyms.
The term "heart" here does expresss the conscious inner nature of man whereas the term "soul" has reference to the outward expression of that conscious inner nature in the "life" or "as a man thinketh in his heart SO IS HE" in his life. The term "strength" is the power that makes the inward conscious nature expressed in the outer life. This is the only way that the COMPLETE inward and outward expression of obedience by man can be conveyed. This is the immediate context, that God desires the COMPLETE conscious expression of obedience both inwardly and outwardly and that is why the context goes on to emphasize the outward expression as both the inward and outward are inclusive in these three terms.
The point here in Deuteronomy is the same as in Matthew that man is responsible to express complete CONSCIOUS obedience to God so that the inward conscious expression of this obedience is manifest in everything said and done or his expressed life is that of obedience as well.
In addition, the term "heart" as used in the Old Testament is not the only word used to express the conscious inward aspect of man. When the intellectual aspect is emphasized the Hebrews use the term "mind" or directly associate terms to express the intellectual aspect with the term "heart" (e.g. "for as a man THINKETH in his heart so IS HE). The Old Testament uses the term "heart" in some cases is used to simply emphasize the emotional aspect of affection rather than intellectual.
My point is this. Your argument is only valid if the Old Testament used only the term "heart" for the inward conscious expression of man OR if the Old Testament did not use other terms to express varied aspects of the inward man OR if the Old Testament did not use the term "heart" in contexts to emphasize intellectual versus emotional aspects. None of these are true. Therefore, Christ may add terminology to this command in order to express the same variety of aspects found in the use of "heart" in the entire Old Testament context as well as other Old Testament synonyms used either separately from the term "heart" but have to do with the conscious inner self-expression or terms which emphasize the very same aspects that the Hebrew term "heart" expresses in certain contexts (intellect/mind or affection/heart).
Moreover, when "heart" and "mind" are found in the same context the term "heart" emphasizes the emotional/affections and the "mind" emphasizes the intellection/thinking aspect of the inward conscious self.
Therefore you argument is mute as you cannot possibly restrict the conscious inner self-expression to the one word "heart" in the Old Testament nor can you deny that the term "heart" in the Old Testament is not used to emphasize DIFFERENT aspects of the inner conscious self nor can you deny that other Hebrew terms are used to emphasize those varied aspects of the inward conscious self. Thus, it is perfectly legitimate for Christ to ADD other terms in His use of this quotation for broadening the understanding of the inward and outward conscious expression of the personality, especially when the broader New Testament context confirms such distinctions (Heb. 4:12; 1 Thes. 5:23).
Mt 22:37 Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
Mr 12:30 And thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength: this is the first commandment.
Mr 12:33 And to love him with all the heart, and with all the understanding, and with all the soul, and with all the strength,
Lu 10:27 And he answering said, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy strength, and with all thy mind;
In Deuteronomy the term "heart" stands for the entire inward conscious expression, whereas the term "soul" takes in the entire outward expression of that inward conscious self and the term "strength" is the modus operandi between the two.
In the Gospel accounts the Lord adds the term "mind" or "understanding" with the term "heart" in order to give the fuller expression of the "heart" content in the Old Testament so as to emphasize both the emotional/affection aspect with the intellectual/mind aspect. The term "soul" gives the outward obedient expression of both mind and affection and the term "might" or "strength" gives the modus operandit between the inward and outward expression.
There is no contradiction, no conflict between either the context of Deut 6 or with the overall use of the term "heart" in the Old Testament or with its synonyms.
Are you lecturing me on hermeneutics? I would re-think that, brother. I might just as well have said "it is not a proper hermeneutic to base your interpretation on a particular passage while completely discounting the correlating passage in the Old Testament and the author's intent in using the said passage."
There are areas where the New Testament authors expand the meaning of the Old Testament. Thank God these passages are clear expansions!
The greatest commandment passage, however, is not one of those passages. It is clear, because of the variation in the synoptics, that it is not the intention to expand this. Further more in Matthew, Jesus says that the two commandments are the summary of the Law and Prophets. So Jesus is not attempting to nor is He intending to expand the specific meaning or to argue for a trichotomist understanding of humanity. He is merely giving to commands that summarize the Law and the Prophets--because of the question that was given to Him.
For all your hermeneutical lecturing, you are ignoring one over-arching and very important principle: The author's main point must become our main point. Therefore, since the context of the greatest commandment is a question about Law and commandments and since Jesus refers to the Law and Prophets, it is clear that our hermeneutical understanding must be in line with His--and it is clear that He is not expanding the understanding.
Blessings,
The Archangel