You must be referencing 1 Corinthians 9:14 as many do?
No, actually it is verse 13
1Co 9:13 Do you not know that those who are employed in the temple service get their food from the temple, and those who serve at the altar share in the sacrificial offerings?
Please point out to me where Paul says tithes? The truth is he did not say tithes... nor was he implying tithes of the congregation.
Please show me where Paul ever says the word omniscient?
So just because Paul doesn't state the word, we can see by the correlation of what was to be done now in direct relation back to the OT whereby the Levitical priests were sustained by the peoples worship, commanded by God in tithes and offerings.
Each had a distinctive purpose but the priests received from both aspects. The purpose of each was vital in understanding the principles God was teaching His people. Thus the tithe was never considered an offering (ie. like the atonement - offering) nor was the offering to ever be considered a tithe. Yet while never the same thing in relation to function.. they were in relation to form or essence (worship)
Additionally, it isn't the tithe itself I'm speaking to, it is the principle of the tithe we should be teaching regarding giving. no LESS than 10%.. NT giving is more than the tithe. The tithe simply showed what was the most most basic.. it became the norm... almost no one gave more than their tithe as it became their obligation. Even Jesus who was teaching regarding the Kingdom of God, never dismissed the tithe. In fact he states to the pharisees not only should you tithe but you should also not neglect the other important things. Not Jesus nor the apostles ever state the tithe was not a continued part of what was the norm.. but what was not the norm and need to be taught and instruction given on was 'giving' which was not something done in general. In and of itself was a 'new' concept for them, not because it was specifically new, but that it was known but wasn't understood and practiced.
That which the priest ate at the altar was not the tithe of the children of Israel. No, they did not take their tithe to the priest, for they were not allowed near the Tabernacle lest they bear sin and die.
So who took their tithe to the Tabernacle, you may ask? The answer may shock you, but no one took their tithe to the priest.
They gave it as a tithe to Lord, and the Priest partook as it was his right. It doesn't matter who they gave it to, it matters 'that' they gave and 'why' they gave.
However lets clear something up quickly.. there is more than one tithe and various ways to give regarding each tithe and all were required. The principle of the tithe establishes not so much a 'what to tithe' but that we should be at minimum 'tithing' whatever we have been given, for the provision of others, which is our worship unto God who gave us every good thing.
The Levites received the tithe of the congregation of Israel. The Levite took a tithe of that tithe to the Tabernacle. That's right, the priest only received a fraction of the original tithe... not the full 10%.
Scripture says that God gave them ALL the tithes. However The issue is not what %, but that the illustration refers back to an OT principle you claim is no longer valid, yet here we see it being used to encourage NT believers in how to care for their minister and from whence it comes.
Was Paul telling the Corinthian Church to give their pastor 10% of their money? Hardly. He did say "Even so", did he not?
Exactly- Even so.. or, Do you not know, or Surely you know... he bringing the illustration home in the very fact they KNOW this and is the very reason he referred back to the OT teaching. There is a principle that is being brought in, but it is so knit or closely tied together with 1. how it was obtained and 2. to whom it was given; they cannot be tossed aside without both aspects loosing all meaning and principle illustration loose all cohesiveness and fall a part. If one doesn't understand the reason for tithes and for offerings, one will miss out on why they were given to the Priest, and how both aspects have a direct relationship with each other.
Yes, he did. And the priest of the Taberacle did not receive 10 of the congregation of Israel's money. He received 10% of that which the Levites received from the congregation.
No one has said Israel gave only money, but Israel could give money in place of the tithe as per Lev. The point is what it was FOR.. and that was provision through the cultures common means. It did not negate the given of tithes or offerings in the form of money. Though due to times of when this was established as a command unto the people of Israel, the means of provision was most easily done through material means rather than monetary. Additionally the other main point is the symbolism it showed forth in each point and aspect. Thus again material was sought over monetary, though monetary was allowed.
It is of note that they DID in fact receive money for the things that were devoted to God and received a redemption price for the first born of men and
this was part of the inheritance of the tithes and offerings they received from the peoples worship of God. Num 18:14-16 This states that every devoted things was to be theirs including the first born. Of men, a redemption price had to be paid - it was theirs, but again, they had to pay their own tithes as well. Another point in which payment was made was for various vows (vs 16) taken (types listed -Lev 27;1-33)
Numbers 18:21 -
To the sons of Levi, behold, I have given ALL the tithe of Israel for an inheritance, in return for their service which they perform...
But we see in vs 26 - the Levite is to present a tithe of the tithe (so he get 90% of his share - not the whole amount)
But was Paul saying the Pastor/Elder/Bishop of the congregation was to receive 10% of a tithe even? No, he was not!
Paul's point stood on two principle points, 1. the consistent giving of the people through tithes and offerings, which 2. was from where the minister was to be paid from
Paul said 'they which preach the Gospel should live of the Gospel', meaning they should be paid for their service to the saints, but he was not speaking of the stationery Pastor/Bishop/Elder. He was speaking of the traveling Missionary/Evangelist.
I disagree, it pertains to all who serve the lord in such a manner. Paul gives no such distinction nor it is implied. In fact I can't find any good commentary that makes any such distinction, whether Reformed or Non.. they all agree Paul was speaking of 'anyone' in said service.
Everywhere in the New Testament where one is told to preach, that one is sent out from the congregation to preach, not stationery. Paul even referenced himself in the 9th Chapter in his first epistle to the Corinthians as having preached, or being sent to preach.
Again, not true. Preach simply means to proclaim. Not every who proclaimed went everywhere doing it, many were in one location. Timothy was told to preach the word, and during that time, he was not travelling but pastoring and exhorted to do the work of the Evangelist - again, not traveling but in one location.
Sorry Allan, but there is no justification for a teaching of a monetary tithe in the New Testament.
Hey, it's your opinion.