If you are speaking of today, do you have Scripture for this.
"Having gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, let us use them; if prophecy, in proportion to our faith; if service, in our serving; he who teaches, in his teaching; he who exhorts, in his exhortation; he who contributes, in liberality; he who gives aid, with zeal; he who does acts of mercy, with cheerfulness." (Romans 12:6-8)
"As each has received a gift, employ it for one another, as good stewards of God's varied grace; whoever speaks, as one who utters oracles of God; whoever renders service, as one who renders it by the strength which God supplies; in order that in everything God may be glorified through Jesus Christ." (I Peter 4:10-11)
Paul's first letter to the Corinthians was one of his earliest, and the only one in which he refers to the sign gifts. His letter to the Romans was written a few years later, and when he talks about gifts there there is no mention of tongues or healing or any of those. The sign gifts were already declining in importance. Yet Paul did speak of other kinds of gifts 'that differ according to the grace given to us.' So he's talking about gifts given by God to believers as part of His grace, which means we're NOT talking about natural abilities that everyone, believer or non-believer, was born with or has learned through ordinary means. We're talking about something that the person did NOT have prior to receiving God's grace, and was GIVEN to him at that point.
Look at the gifts Paul mentions here. There are seven on this list (which I don't believe is intended to be exhaustive, btw, just representative). Two of them, #s 1 and 3, are also mentioned in I Corinthians, so it's clearly the same kind of gifts he's talking about here. Interspersed with those two are five other gifts of different kinds, gifts which have absolutely nothing to do with communicating God's truth in a revelatory way. One of them is listed BETWEEN the two gifts also mentioned in I Corinthians, so they can't be separated. They are all different varieties of the same God-ordained, Holy Spirit empowered phenomenon of Spiritual Gifts.
The point is, if the whole purpose of Spiritual Gifts was merely to hold down the fort until the Bible was completed, why does Paul's understanding of the concept include gifts that have nothing whatsoever to do with revealing or authenticating God's truth? My view of Spiritual Gifts is in complete harmony with I Corinthians 13 and Romans 12. Your view contradicts both.
Peter also addresses the issue of Spiritual Gifts in his first letter. Again, notice that no sign gifts are mentioned. They were temporary, and of declining importance at this time. Peter confirms Paul's teaching about the nature of the Gifts, stating that each of us has RECEIVED one as part of God's 'varied grace.' Peter speaks of two categories of gifts. The second he mentions is of particular relevance to this discussion: "whoever renders service, as one who renders it by the strength which God supplies." What other possible meaning could this sentence have than that God has given some believers a gift to aid them in serving others, the source of which is THE STRENGTH THAT GOD SUPPLIES. Again, service gifts have nothing whatsoever to do with revealing or confirming God's truth, so there would be no reason for those gifts to end with the completion of the Bible.
Why the dichotomy between "miraculous" and "obviously miraculous," or "more miraculous"? There is only one kind of miraculous. Either it is or it isn't.
As we have just seen, the service gifts, like all Spiritual Gifts, are powered by 'the strength that God supplies.' God-supplied strength is not something natural. A miracle is something supernatural. Miracles don't have to be obviously supernatural. Have you ever heard of 'Providential' miracles? These are things that happen that are technically possible, but which are so against all the odds that Divine influence is implied. At this moment in my life I am the happiest I have ever been in my 49 years. This is the result of an amazing series of 'coincidences' in recent months that have lifted me out of a long depression cycle (in which I learned much, but which I was stuck in because of my overactive emotions). This has not been 'obviously' miraculous. Many would say I just got lucky, but I see God's hand clearly guiding the process. Miraculous, but not obviously miraculous.
In a similar way, God empowers some people to serve in various ways at an unusually high level. I'm sure you have known Christians over the years who just seem to be unusually self-sacrificial, unusually compassionate, unusually empathetic. Is it just that these people were born that way, or is that part of their gift, 'the strength that God provides?' Miraculous, but not obviously miraculous. Now when someone had leprosy one minute and was completely cured the next, that was an OBVIOUS miracle. No one could deny that SOMETHING supernatural had just happened. That's the difference.
'More miraculous' might not have been the best possible choice of words, but all I meant was that in the early years people with some of the gifts were receiving completely new revelation, in addition to guidance in understanding and teaching others about revelations that had already been received. The revelatory messages were a second level of the gift, so there was additional miraculous activity going on then with those gifts. But when those with the revelatory gifts used them (to those who spoke the same language), those gifts were not sufficient in and of themselves. The speaker had no way to prove that the message was from God. It was miraculous, but not obviously miraculous. That's why there were also people with the sign gifts, to show that God's power was among them, and authenticate the otherwise unprovavbly miraculous message that was being preached.
What reason can you give that the nature of the gift would have changed since the first century?
The very reason you yourself keep giving! That the Bible was completed! Some gifts had a revelatory component while the Bible was still being written. Once there was a Bible, that revelatory component was no longer needed. What was needed then, even more than before, was Spirit-empowered guidance in understanding and teaching the completed revelation. We still need that now, which is why God hasn't taken away those gifts.
Tongues and prophecy were essentially the same gift according to Paul.
If they were essentially the same gift to Paul, why did he go to the trouble of using those different verbs and voices in reference to them? You still haven't answered that one, other than to blame it on literary style or something. Which is tantamount to saying that the Holy Spirit doesn't choose His words carefully, so you might want to rethink that answer.
Bill Gates gives a lot of his money to charity. Does that mean he has the gift of giving? Confucious, Plato, and Socrates all were great teachers. Does that mean they had the spiritual gift of teaching? Mother Theresa helped many; so did Albert Schweitzer. Does that mean that they had the gift of helps?
No, no, and VERY LIKELY!
Bill Gates seems to be primarily concerned with PR, and the teachers you cited did NOT teach God's truth. Apples and oranges there, my friend. Thanks for helping my case!
Omniscience belongs only to God. For others to claim omniscience is akin to claiming Godhood
Do I need to speak slower or use smaller words? I know you're smart enough, DHK, so let's try it again:
...this does NOT mean that we will be gods. It does not mean we will know everything God knows... It means that where now we struggle to try to master small parts of everything the Bible has to teach us, then we will know and understand ALL of it. There is still far more that we will NOT know, because we are not and never will be God.
Now listen carefully, I'll try not to go too fast. In I Corinthians 13:8-12 Paul is talking about our limited knowledge now, versus the complete knowledge we will have 'then,' 'when the perfect comes.' Now please look carefully at verse 12. For the greatest possible clarity I'm going to use the KJV, because it is a more literal translation of this verse:
"now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known."
Now clearly the last part means 'known BY GOD.' So 'when the perfect comes,' we will know as completely as we ourselves are known by God. If this refers to the completion of the Bible, then Paul was wrong. We have the whole Bible, have had it for a long time now, and no one in all that time has come anywhere close to knowing the truth revealed in it as completely as we are known by God. Only when the limitations of sinful mortality are lifted can we reach that level, and that has nothing to do with when the Bible was finished. As I've pointed out before, Paul himself was dead when that happened. It just doesn't fit.
Now here's the important part (and if you really pay attention, maybe you can finally get past accusing me of wanting to be God): 'I shall know even as also I am known' does NOT mean 'I shall know everything God knows!' If Paul had meant that, he would have said it. He did not. The verse does NOT refer to omniscience! It does NOT refer to anyone becoming like God! It does NOT refer to Mormonism! It does NOT refer to spinach quiche! Do we have that straight now? Can you FINALLY stop accusing me of saying things that are the exact opposite of what I've actually said? I think you're basically a good guy, so I really do hope so.
So what DOES 'I shall know even as also I am known' mean? In the context of Paul's discussion, it refers to HUMANLY RELEVANT KNOWLEDGE. The stuff that is in the Bible. All the basic teaching about God. And I say basic, because that's what the Bible is. God's full truth is VASTLY greater than what's in the Bible, because God's mind is immeasurably deeper than ours. The Bible contains all of God's truth THAT HUMANS ARE CAPABLE OF KNOWING AND UNDERSTANDING. The revelatory gifts were a temporary way of communicating pieces of this truth. The Bible contains all of it, but no mortal human has ever been able to know and understand more than a small percentage of everything that's in it. Even though we have the Bible, we still 'see in a mirror dimly'; we 'know in part,' because of our sinful, mortal limitations. 'Then,' we shall understand it all. BUT THAT'S STILL ONLY A TINY PARTICLE OF ALL THAT
GOD KNOWS. It is only the elemental level of God's truth that he has given us in the Bible that we will someday 'know even as [we] also are known.' We'll have completed 'Introduction to God's Truth.' At the feet of Jesus, 'God's Truth 101' will convene.
Are we clear now? Can you stop accusing me of being a Mormon and a heretic and a Samaritan and a tax collector and whatever else you've been calling me? I'm confident the answer is 'yes.'
(Just to be clear, I was smiling when I was writing that last section. I'm not mad at you, my brother in Christ. In the future, though, you may want to think twice before tossing loaded words like 'heresy' around. It doesn't help your case.)