Featured Translating grammatical forms

think that is why for the really serious study of the bible, we need to learn at least the basic of the Hrebrew/Greek grammar, enough to be able to use original languages tools such as lexicons, dictionaries etc!

for while translations can be very helpful, still no substitute for the 'real thing!"

 

yes, that would be the better word to use there!

 

JoJ,does form = meaning? Is it the same thing?

Is it possible to capture all nuances when you are translating? Translating is a give-and-take process;isn't it? You have to make choices between things when the alternative might be acceptable as well.

The proponents of the ESV(by that I mean the Preface and Grudem,Ryken &Co.) claim that every possible nuance is packed into their translation. You don't think you are able to do that with yours,do you? You have to settle for a compromise at times;don't you?

 

Won' some of the Nuances being taken and translated into the receiving language though be different due to the 'bias" of the transaltors in regards to trying to mke the Bible speak in what they think it should have said, or would say based upon today, rather than what it said and meant tothe original readers of it?

and is this the area in translation of the scriptures where theTniv/Niv 2011 has received heat for their decisions made in rendering into english, as they have sought to make sure thebible speaks to both male/female, and try to not make it offend Christian feminists as sounding 'too harsh?"

 

Advocating ear tickling over accurate translation is without merit.

Luke 8:43 offers several options for translation. The first word "and" could be translated "now" to indicate a change of topic. However, "and" is the most probable meaning of the word. So this could be filed under improving the style rather than translating the style.

Next we get a hemorrhage, or an issue of blood, or a flow of blood, or an issue of a flow of blood. But is she having a flow of blood, or is the idea she had a flow of blood from twelve.

Does the text really say 12 years or does it say from 12. Did she start flowing at age 12, or had the flowing been occurring for 12 years.

Next the CT brackets the idea of having spent her living, apparently going with the idea it was added to harmonize with Mark. The dreaded NIV and NASB leave it out, the KJV includes it.

If it is an addition then reference to the doctors goes away, at least directly.

Next "no one was able to restore her health" seems to best capture the grammar.

 

Agree with you on this, but think the Tniv went overboard, as their group had stated that a purpose in translating the revision was to make sure the "bias" that might be seen still in the text 1984 was updated, so to not offend those in circles thinking the bible is anti female! So agenda drove their revision partly!

 

We may not all agree with JoJ's individual statements, but I believe that God has put this drive in his heart:

"... Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God".

HankD​

 

Not really

Ear tickling is without merit. You should agree rather than question.

Choosing the best word in English, to convey the original message should reflect both the Greek grammar and construction. Here we have a topic change, thus some translators go with "now" but "and" most accurately presents the original.

That is your choice but a flow of blood more closely reflects the actual meaning of the Greek word used.

Yes "from 12" is a prepositional phrase. To change "apo" which means out of or from or since, to years is without merit.

It relates to the meaning of "no one" of the doctors versus no one including Jesus.

No it reinforces the passive verb and includes the nuance.

 

No one was able to restore her health is not the same as no one restored her health. To be restored is passive, thus was able creates the passive nuance. The idea is she was not able to be healed by any, thus no one was able to restore her health captures the nuance and the grammar.

1)flow of blood

2) since 12 years

3) no one was able to restore her health.

 

Funny, my dad recently presented a paper on this textual problem. Here it is for anyone interested: "The High Cost of Physicians: The Textual Criticism of Luke 8:43."

What do you think?

Sincerely,

Jonathan C. Borland

 

Someone needs to study grammar more. How about "by no one was she able to be restored to health.”