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Translating OT from Septuagint

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Yeshua1

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Thayer, like Dr George Winer, of the 3 NT Greek grammars, allowed his theology to influence his word definitions in his lexicon, many being quite subtle, and almost convincing to the untrained mind!
What wrong think did Thayer and Winer advance though, as Thayer seemed to give what the Greek stated, even if he might not have agreed with it!
 

Yeshua1

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My point is that we do not have any of the originals. So by your standard we cannot have an inerrant Bible or an inspired Bible in ANY language. We just have a good guess. I don't think that's enough to base belief upon.
We have a perfect God, not a perfect Bible!
 

JonC

Moderator
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We have a perfect God, not a perfect Bible!
You may. I have a perfect Bible BECAUSE I have a perfect God.
For what Paul stated the scriptures were profitable for!
How do you know? Paul may have never really said that....you don't have the originals.

That's why I asked perfect FOR WHAT? I may not have a perfect translation, but I do have God's perfect and inspired Word. I am so sorry that you don't.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
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Six hour warning -
This thread will close no sooner than 1230 AM (Tue) EST / 930 pm (Mon) PST
 

JonC

Moderator
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One can translate off the Critical GT, or Majority, or the TR and have still word of God into English
How can you have the Word of God uninspired by God? Doesn't "word" in Word of God signify that it is comes from God and not man?
 

rlvaughn

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Translations cannot be Inerrant, nor inspired, but are Infallible!
We veering further and further from the OP, but I would be interested for you to define your words:
  • Inerrant
  • Inspired
  • Infallible
What do you mean by each of these? Thanks.
 
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