Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
The truth is:Scarlett O. said:A chuckle from someone like you, Jim, is a balm in an otherwise discouraging thread. I mean that. :wavey:
DHK said:So, that is just some of the truth of God's Word--only a small part of it. You say it is a discouraging thread. I imagine it is when women rebel against the commands of God. It is always discouraging to be outside the will of God, especially when it is clearly revealed to you.
DHK
rlvaughn said:I have read through the thread with interest -- even tried to make a post that must have went into web limbo land. I have a couple of comments and a few questions.
First, it seemed a "coincidence" yesterday to find our newspaper discussing Tony Blair (British prime minister) and Italy's prime minister opposing the Muslim wearing of veils in public.
http://www.latimes.com/news/printedition/asection/la-fg-veil18oct18,1,4943106.story?coll=la-news-a_section
Second, Bro. Bob's comments about the millennium could have led off topic I suppose, but I think it is valid to consider the possibility that some people might dismiss the head covering because it is only found in one passage, while accepting a one thousand year long reign of Christ which time is only found in one passage (neither of these are found in "only one verse"; about fifteen in I Cor. 11 and seven in Rev. 20).
But to get to what I really want to ask:
1. What portions of the text of I Cor. 11:2-26 (and/or surrounding verses) indicate that Paul's teaching concerning the head covering is intended to be cultural?
2. If the teaching is cultural, what is its meaning for us today?
3. Is it applicable only to the Corinthians and only provides historical information for us in this day and time?
4. Is there a possibility that the practice is no longer valid, but the principle is?
5. If there is a valid applicable principle, what is it?
Jim1999 said:There is no question that Paul tolerated slavery an even encouraged slaves to be content in their state.......
Accordingly, though I am bold enough in Christ to command you to do what is required, yet for love's sake I prefer to appeal to you — I, Paul, an old man and now a prisoner also for Christ Jesus — I appeal to you for my child, Onesimus, whose father I became in my imprisonment. ... I am sending him back to you, sending my very heart. I would have been glad to keep him with me, in order that he might serve me on your behalf during my imprisonment for the gospel, but I preferred to do nothing without your consent in order that your goodness might not be by compulsion but of your own free will. For this perhaps is why he was parted from you for a while, that you might have him back forever, no longer as a slave but more than a slave, as a beloved brother — especially to me, but how much more to you, both in the flesh and in the Lord.
So if you consider me your partner, receive him as you would receive me. If he has wronged you at all, or owes you anything, charge that to my account. I, Paul, write this with my own hand: I will repay it — to say nothing of your owing me even your own self. Yes, brother, I want some benefit from you in the Lord. Refresh my heart in Christ.
Confident of your obedience, I write to you, knowing that you will do even more than I say.
(Philemon 1:8-10, 12-21, ESV)