Oh boy...
So God gave them verses and as time went on they found out the verses were correct? This is untrue ach.
This is exactly where you and other KJVOers go astray.
And you continue:
There is no reason to believe that God could not have supplied them with verses? Come on ach, that's ridiculous reasoning. Here we see your belief in DI and advanced revelations. Ach, you know this isn't factual.
What next, prove He didn't do it? Come on doc. Talk about circular reasoning. Even without the 'what next' your statement is still circular and there is much of this in the KJVOers apologetic. Plainly there is no proof for any of such contentions on the KJV translation. Why? Simply because this didn't take place.
God blessed us with a KJV, but He didn't theos pnuestos this to the translators. I'm certain based on your above assertion this must have happened as well. More DI.
There was and is no magic going on in its translation proccess. Your arguments are pure conjecture, arbitrary, sensationalistic, mere fantasticism, and such ideas have had to have come from Ruckmanism.
the ORIGINALS are what the KJVO are making the KJV be!
THEY were the only "authorized" word of God to mna directly, and the original language texts that we based versions off are the infallible texts, thus infallible versions off them!