Hebrews 9 explains he ACCOMPLISHED REDEMPTION for actual people...many.Thumbsup
With out doubt ALMOST every phrase of Hebrews 9 and 10 deal with the security of and example of the best sacrifice that could be offered, especially for those called to belief.
However, there is a turn of the phrase in Hebrews 9:15 that (imo) is often missed, misaligned, or misapplied. It is uncomfortable to those who would prevent in some measure the application of the Cross to all humankind, but that uncomfortableness should never be a consideration. The truth of the Scriptures should always be supreme, so look again, and consider. That truth does NOT lead to universalism.
Here is the verse:
15 For this reason He is the mediator of a new covenant, so that, since a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were committed under the first covenant, those who have been called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance.
Focus upon this phrase: "...a death has taken place for the redemption of the transgressions that were (committed) under the first covenant..."
Who was "under the first covenant" in which animal sacrifices were obliged? Some may say, well it was the Jews. Then the death was not only for the remnant saved, but for all Jews. What of the gentile's who were also in the outer courts? The death of those sacrifices were also applied to them. What of Jews or gentiles that did not make the journey? The death was for them, too. So, then the death took place "for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first covenant."
What transgressions? The breaking of the ten commandments - or other offenses written by Moses under the guidance of God. That would include (taking Roman's "all have sinned") everyone who has or will ever live. There for, the "redemption of the transgressions" applies to every single person that ever has or will live.
Now to some, they will immediately draw the conclusion that certainly everyone is then saved. NOT!!!
For the very next phrase says, "those
who have been called may receive the promise of the eternal inheritance." So, then although all sin under the first covenant is indeed redeemed, not all are called, not all are saved.
It is that same principle found in John's writing (John 3, 1 John 2, 1 John 4). The unbelievers are without excuse.
God is just because the lost stand condemned not for sins, but for unbelief. This is found in the picture of the final judgment, too.
What of their sins - are not the lost in flaming torment because of sin? NO!
They are in the flaming torment because of unbelief ("condemned already... John 3). Look further at the statement in John 3:
17 “For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him. 18 “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God. 19 “This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil. 20 “For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. 21 “But he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God.”
So, where is the Scriptures state that one is "condemed" because of sin (either one or many)?
Look carefully at this section of Romans 8:
1 Therefore there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the law of sin and of death. 3 For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, 4 so that the requirement of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.
See, here it shows no limit placed upon the "offering for sin;" in deed, "He condemned sin in the flesh"
CERTAINLY, believers are the ultimate benefactor ("so that the the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh.")
WHO are the condemned? Those who "walk according to the flesh but (not) according to the Spirit." Why are they condemned? Reread the previous sentence.
Titus 3 says this:
3 For we also once were foolish ourselves, disobedient, deceived, enslaved to various lusts and pleasures, spending our life in malice and envy, hateful, hating one another. 4 But when the kindness of God our Savior and His love for mankind appeared, 5 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, 6whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7so that being justified by His grace we would be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.
The above shows that the deeds (good or bad) is NOT the basis of condemnation or not. The believers are believers according to HIS mercy.
One final question: What good then is the OT law? Romans 3:24 For the believer, "The Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith." The law is our tutor, school master, that which points to Christ.
What of the unbeliever? Galatians 3 makes this point:
10 For as many as are of the works of the Law are under a curse; for it is written, “CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO DOES NOT ABIDE BY ALL THINGS WRITTEN IN THE BOOK OF THE LAW, TO PERFORM THEM.”... 12 However, the Law is not of faith; on the contrary, “HE WHO PRACTICES THEM SHALL LIVE BY THEM.” (note: I did not use the caps)
Galatians goes on to state that those who are not believers are under the law, and must live by that law "condemned" (as John says "already." The law did not condemn, the sin did not condemn, the lack of belief condemned.
1 Corinthians 15 says: " The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law;"
Therefore, the unbelievers are condemned. Law empowers sin, and sin's sting is death - all humankind die believer and unbeliever: The final judgment is belief or unbelief.
Ok, I have shown you enough from more than one writer of Scriptures so you may know some of the evidence that supports my statements.
Do not forget that John uses a different form of the word translated "propitiation" than anywhere else in the NT. It is specific to the blood, and not to the act, or the place. That blood was shed for all humankind, from Adam to the very last one to have a belly button.