I went to a Baptist church for a number of years that taught that water baptism was not necessary for salvation, but rather was a testimony of one's faith. It is difficult to think of any denomination (except perhaps Church of Christ) that takes baptism more seriously than Baptists. However, in considering if water baptism is a requirement for Christians or perhaps a misapplied legacy from the kingdom gospel, I thought I would solicit opinions.
The first problem is the word "baptism" which is a transliteration of baptizo, I suspect that the KJV translators were reluctant to use the English word immersion (as of dishes and sinking ships) as a translation as it would create trouble for those who saw salvation in infant baptism. The Jews had a long tradition of various washings and mikveh. If one consider the "church" as starting in Acts 2, then Acts 2:38 would seem to apply the requirement of baptism to salvation.
One has to consider the statement by Paul that while he did baptize a few, Jesus did not send him to baptize (1Cor1:17). Then there is the assertion that there is "one" baptism, which is taken to be the "immersion" of the believer into the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit. If water baptism is excluded from the "one" baptism, does this mean it shouldn't be practiced?
Is this confusion resolved by a two gospel view of the new testament. If the kingdom gospel offered to the nation of Israel in fulfillment of prophecy is different that the individual gospel of grace for the gentiles, might the idea of water baptism belong to Israel?
Gal 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
Just interested to hear thoughts on this distinction.
The first problem is the word "baptism" which is a transliteration of baptizo, I suspect that the KJV translators were reluctant to use the English word immersion (as of dishes and sinking ships) as a translation as it would create trouble for those who saw salvation in infant baptism. The Jews had a long tradition of various washings and mikveh. If one consider the "church" as starting in Acts 2, then Acts 2:38 would seem to apply the requirement of baptism to salvation.
One has to consider the statement by Paul that while he did baptize a few, Jesus did not send him to baptize (1Cor1:17). Then there is the assertion that there is "one" baptism, which is taken to be the "immersion" of the believer into the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit. If water baptism is excluded from the "one" baptism, does this mean it shouldn't be practiced?
Is this confusion resolved by a two gospel view of the new testament. If the kingdom gospel offered to the nation of Israel in fulfillment of prophecy is different that the individual gospel of grace for the gentiles, might the idea of water baptism belong to Israel?
Gal 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;
Just interested to hear thoughts on this distinction.