skanwmatos
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In this case I will have to agree with you, timothy 1769. Where is the supposed contradiction? It looks to me as if both verses says the same thing? What did I miss?Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Where's the contradiction?
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In this case I will have to agree with you, timothy 1769. Where is the supposed contradiction? It looks to me as if both verses says the same thing? What did I miss?Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Where's the contradiction?
I guess I missed something somewhere. Would you mind summarizing these 3 errors?Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Originally posted by Daniel David:
Again, I realize the difficulty of my original question, so I will have to restate it:
Does the NASB incorrectly translate ITS underlying text.
Uh, make that YES, 3 errors and counting...
Apparently you don't read the posts. Your three examples of eisegesis don't constitute errors in the NASB.Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Uh, make that YES, 3 errors and counting...
I think you misunderstood?If that's the case, I don't think that qualifies. Specifically, It DOESN'T say "who ye slew and then hung on a tree".
I guess I missed something somewhere. Would you mind summarizing these 3 errors? </font>[/QUOTE]1) 1Peter 3:3 inserts 'merely' with no textual support whatsoever, turning the passage on it's head and flatly contradicting Paul. An incorrect translation.Originally posted by Scott J:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Originally posted by Daniel David:
Again, I realize the difficulty of my original question, so I will have to restate it:
Does the NASB incorrectly translate ITS underlying text.
Uh, make that YES, 3 errors and counting...
I agree with you because the prophecy in the O.T. said vinegar. The N.T. said vineager. Both agreed each other. Then the KJV is correct.Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Oxos CAN mean sour wine, and it can also mean vinegar. Sour wine is an incorrect translation, as it introduces contradiction.
How would anyone read the text and understand the difference of what the wine is and what is vinegar?Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
Historians tell us it was sour wine mixed with vinegar that was a common drink of Roman soldiers. It is not an incorrect translation and it introduces no contradiction.
I agree with you because the prophecy in the O.T. said vinegar. The N.T. said vineager. Both agreed each other. Then the KJV is correct.Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Oxos CAN mean sour wine, and it can also mean vinegar. Sour wine is an incorrect translation, as it introduces contradiction.
No problem here! However the problem is how you read the Scriptures and understand what the Scriptures explained.Originally posted by BrianT:
I don't understand your point, Askjo. Mark 15:23, even in the KJV, says "And they gave him to drink wine mingled with myrrh: but he received it not."
BOTH wine (v23) and vinegar (v36) was offered to him. He was offered a drink twice, the first time it was wine, the second time it was vinegar.
What's the problem?
I agree with you because the prophecy in the O.T. said vinegar. The N.T. said vineager. Both agreed each other. Then the KJV is correct.Originally posted by BrianT:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Askjo:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by timothy 1769:
Oxos CAN mean sour wine, and it can also mean vinegar. Sour wine is an incorrect translation, as it introduces contradiction.
It matters both because it was a fulfillment of prophecy and whatever the drink was cannot contradict Jesus' prediction about not drinking the fruit of the vine. Oxos can mean sour wine, but it can also just mean vinegar. I prefer the translation that shows the fulfillment of prophecy and avoids contradictions. Apparently most modern translators prefer the one that satisifies historians and scholars.Originally posted by robycop3:
Are we beating a dead horse here? We have four Gospels that say different things in reference to the same event. What we know for sure is that Jesus was offered a drink of whatever the romans had handy. It doesn't change one blip of doctrine if they offered Him wine, vinegar, or Gatorade.
It matters both because it was a fulfillment of prophecy and whatever the drink was cannot contradict Jesus' prediction about not drinking the fruit of the vine. Oxos can mean sour wine, but it can also just mean vinegar. I prefer the translation that shows the fulfillment of prophecy and avoids contradictions. Apparently most modern translators prefer the one that satisifies historians and scholars.Originally posted by timothy 1769:
[/qb]
Then the sign said at least,Originally posted by HankD:
Perhaps he means (for instance) the inscription Pilate had written and put above Jesus on the cross. Each gives a different wording.
Matthew 27:37 And set up over his head his accusation written, THIS IS JESUS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
Mark 15:26 And the superscription of his accusation was written over, THE KING OF THE JEWS.
Luke 23:38 And a superscription also was written over him in letters of Greek, and Latin, and Hebrew, THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.
John 19:19 And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was, JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS.
HankD