Briguy,
I asked you for evidence earlier. What is the evidence that the use of a different verb form for 'cease' indicates that it will cease at a different time as prophecy or knowledge? You haven't made a case for this idea. You just seem to assume it.
Also, the 'coulds' are in that post because the poster is extremely careful to argue 'is's instead of 'coulds' on points that can be decisively proven.
Btw, the quotes from the OT are quotes from the Greek Old Testament in use in the time of the writing of the New Testament, which probably greatly influenced the religious lingo of the day like the KJV has influenced religous terminology in the English world, if not more so.
Also if you will read the arguments carefully and look back to previous sections of the post, it is possible to follow his argument. it is just dreadfully slow doing so if you don't know the Greek forms already. Also keep in mind he uses two alternate forms of transliteration for each Greek word, one in which the Roman letters that resemble the Greek letters are used, and a more standard phonetic transliteration method.
His post knocks down a lot of assertions I have read over the years about this verse. Instances of someone stopping speaking, when they could start again later argues against the idea that the passage proves that tongues would cease once and never start again once they started.
The face that the same form for 'cease' is used for Christ calming the wind and the waves disproves the idea that the Greek word for cease in I Corinthians 14 carries with it the idea that the tongues will 'cease by themselves.' Clearly Jesus calmed the winds and the waves. They died down, but they did not cause themselves to cease.
I asked you for evidence earlier. What is the evidence that the use of a different verb form for 'cease' indicates that it will cease at a different time as prophecy or knowledge? You haven't made a case for this idea. You just seem to assume it.
Also, the 'coulds' are in that post because the poster is extremely careful to argue 'is's instead of 'coulds' on points that can be decisively proven.
Btw, the quotes from the OT are quotes from the Greek Old Testament in use in the time of the writing of the New Testament, which probably greatly influenced the religious lingo of the day like the KJV has influenced religous terminology in the English world, if not more so.
Also if you will read the arguments carefully and look back to previous sections of the post, it is possible to follow his argument. it is just dreadfully slow doing so if you don't know the Greek forms already. Also keep in mind he uses two alternate forms of transliteration for each Greek word, one in which the Roman letters that resemble the Greek letters are used, and a more standard phonetic transliteration method.
His post knocks down a lot of assertions I have read over the years about this verse. Instances of someone stopping speaking, when they could start again later argues against the idea that the passage proves that tongues would cease once and never start again once they started.
The face that the same form for 'cease' is used for Christ calming the wind and the waves disproves the idea that the Greek word for cease in I Corinthians 14 carries with it the idea that the tongues will 'cease by themselves.' Clearly Jesus calmed the winds and the waves. They died down, but they did not cause themselves to cease.
