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What Happened To mankind in the fall of Adam ?

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JonC

JonC

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Yeshua1 said:
ALL of us who were physically born after the fall inherited a sin nature from father Adam , but jesus did not, due to His Virgin Birth. I could list Theologians since the time of the scriptures forward who would agree with me that Jesus was really fully human, but that he did not have the sin nature common to all of us. Were they all wrong also?
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Yes. If they believe Jesus was "more human than human" then they taught a false doctrine. If they believe Jesus had to be born of a virgin to avoid inheriting a "sin nature" then they are wrong and should rely on Scripture rather than superstition.
 
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loDebar

Well-Known Member
He sinned as we all sin, in a human body. But we are condemned already.. Sin is spiritual not physically transmitted , so you had to sin before you were condemned
 
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Yeshua1

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loDebar said:
He sinned as we all sin, in a human body. But we are condemned already.. Sin is spiritual not physically transmitted , so you had to sin before you were condemned
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All of us were judged as being guilty before God, as he represented all of us before God!
 
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Darrell C

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loDebar said:
The sin already happened before creation of the physical world.. Humanity is necessary for the cure. We share the death of Christ only by being Human.
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Could you give Scripture for that? And I mean the Bible, not extra-biblical resources from cults.


God bless.
 
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Aaron

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percho said:
Was the sin of man and the death, that sin brought forth, absolutely necessary for the destruction of the devil and his works?
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No.

From Hebrews 2:14 that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
Was that not going to be the case, the truth, even before the foundation of the world?
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Well, it's a bit bigger than that. This Creation was not about destroying the Devil and His Works. It was about glorifying and exalting the Son, and showing the riches of His love and goodness to those who would be the heirs of salvation.

God is also going to destroy the Devil and his works, but He is not constrained by any necessity to create man and die for man in order to do so.

Otherwise, why would God foreordain, before the foundation of the world, that the sinless Christ would shed his precious blood, because of that sin and death?
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Again, to glorify and exalt His Son, and to demonstrate His love and goodness and His power to those who would be heirs of salvation.

If Adam had not sinned, would the obedience of one, by which many would be made righteous, have come through Adam?
Was that the plan of God but Adam fell, relative to that plan?
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No. Salvation could only be wrought by One who is incorruptible and Who had the power of an endless life. Adam was good, but was corruptible and mortal. He was tempted of the Devil, and He was corrupted and died, and death holds him. Jesus could not be corrupted. He was tempted of the Devil, and was not corrupted (indeed, could not be, because He is God [and Adam is not]) and though He was given a flesh and blood body so that He could be weak enough to taste death, death could not hold him, and He was raised and made a High Priest by the power of an endless life.

I believe the creation, that which was stated as being very good, and included Adam, was subjected to futility, Rom 8:20 for a purpose.
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Yes, and that purpose is the glory and exaltation of the Son.
 
JonShaff

JonShaff

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Psalm 2 shows God's Plan from eternity's past. The Father is going to Give His Son a Love gift and Kingdom--a people to worship and adore Him--through the Power of the Holy Spirit--for all of Eternity.
 
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