I haven't read this so I don't know. I do know that you and your side have given no Scripture in support of the idea that election comes after faith.Funny, I'm thinking this exact same thing while currently reading Sproul's Chosen By God.
Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
I haven't read this so I don't know. I do know that you and your side have given no Scripture in support of the idea that election comes after faith.Funny, I'm thinking this exact same thing while currently reading Sproul's Chosen By God.
You're right. I don't recall reading any Scripture stating that everyone, jew or gentile, become believing jews (The Elect...Romans 9:6) after faith.Pastor Larry said:I haven't read this so I don't know. I do know that you and your side have given no Scripture in support of the idea that election comes after faith.
Pastor Larry said:Actually, webdog, I have given three passages that explicitly say that election comes before faith: Eph 1:4 where election is from before the foundation of the world; 2 Thes 2:13 where election is from teh beginning; and 2 tim 2:10 where election is prior to salvation. In all three cases, only a gross twisting of language can deny that election comes before faith, unless you want to argue that someone can believe before they exist, which still won't deal with 2 Tim 2:10.
So since you have solved the entire cal / arm debate single handedly...why is there still a debate? Probably because your interpretation of Scripture is done through a certain theological bend...Pastor Larry said:Actually, webdog, I have given three passages that explicitly say that election comes before faith: Eph 1:4 where election is from before the foundation of the world; 2 Thes 2:13 where election is from teh beginning; and 2 tim 2:10 where election is prior to salvation. In all three cases, only a gross twisting of language can deny that election comes before faith, unless you want to argue that someone can believe before they exist, which still won't deal with 2 Tim 2:10.
Foreknowledge of people.1 Peter 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
Foreknowledge of what?
There isn't much debate about election being before faith. Most people agree because it is so clear in Scripture. Usually the tactic is to say that they elect because God knows they will eventually believe. That doesn't solve the whole problem, but it is different than those who argue that election comes after faith.So since you have solved the entire cal / arm debate single handedly...why is there still a debate?
How does being "in Christ" differ from being saved? And how does that fit with "before the foundation of the world"?Eph 1:4 for He chose us in Him, before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless in His sight. In love
This does not show that we are elected unto salvation, but we are chosen IN Christ. One is only "in Christ" after faith.
If this is true, then how are they chosen "from the beginning"? Was the Holy Spirit at work to bring belief from "the beginning" when they didn't even exist? Obviously not. That is absurd. Here, the choosing takes place from the beginnning. It is a choosing "for salvation" (not after they have been saved). And the setting apart of the Spirit and the faith in the truth are the result of the choosing.2Th 2:13 But we must always thank God for you, brothers loved by the Lord, because from the beginning God has chosen you for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit and through belief in the truth.
If anything this verse shows those chosen for salvation are done so through belief in the truth after the work of the Holy Spirit...not prior to belief.
This isn't talking about Israel. It is talking about those who were chosen for salvation. The fact that Paul says he endures things so that the elect will be saved, shows that they are elect before they believe. Your lack of understanding of the subjunctive aspect is contributing to your misuse of this verse. Notice how you have to twist it to get it to support you.2Ti 2:10 This is why I endure all things for the elect: so that they also may obtain salvation, which is in Christ Jesus, with eternal glory.
This verse is dealing with true Israel (The Elect), and says nothing of election unto salvation prior to faith in Christ. If election meant irresistable grace, there would be no "may obtain salvation" in the text.
And that is why I am trying to correct it by pointing out the words of the text and their relationships to each other.There has been some gross twisting of Scripture, all right...
Huh? If the verse means what I think you want it to mean, wouldn't Paul have said, "I endure all things for the sake of all mankind, that those who choose to believe may also obtain election...etc..." It's pretty clear from the verse that they were elect before Paul endured anything.Blammo said:2 Timothy 2:10 Therefore I endure all things for the elect's sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory.
And you guys say Paul was the first Calvinist. :laugh:
They will obtain salvation because they are elect, not because of Paul's enduring anything, right?
Both are reasons. The reason why Paul is enduring the persecution is because of his belief that there are elect who will be saved when they hear the message of Christ and respond to it in faith. In this verse, it is clear that they are elect prior to their having salvation. This verse confirms the apostolic teaching that elect is not synonymous with having salvation, that people were elect prior to salvation, and that the preaching of the gospel was necessary for the elect to be saved.2 Timothy 2:10 Therefore I endure all things for the elect's sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory.
And you guys say Paul was the first Calvinist.
They will obtain salvation because they are elect, not because of Paul's enduring anything, right?
Pastor Larry said:Foreknowledge of people.
Blammo said:Randomly selected people, or all people? Something about the people?
It doesn't. If you are in Christ you are saved.How does being "in Christ" differ from being saved?
Is not Christ the One slain from before the foundation of the world? If we are in Him, it seems self explanatory.And how does that fit with "before the foundation of the world"?
See above reply.If this is true, then how are they chosen "from the beginning"?
I don't believe it's saying that. We are chosen based on the drawing of the Holy Spirit through faith in Christ. It's a simple reading of the text.It is a choosing "for salvation" (not after they have been saved). And the setting apart of the Spirit and the faith in the truth are the result of the choosing.
Was the Holy Spirit at work to bring belief from "the beginning" when they didn't even exist? Obviously not. That is absurd.
Paul, as a believing jew (an Elect), had a special place in his heart for the jews. See Romans. He is speaking about Israel.This isn't talking about Israel. It is talking about those who were chosen for salvation.
Notice how you subtly added the above bolded, when the text states "may obtain". It's not a given as you imply, it's not "irresistable".The fact that Paul says he endures things so that the elect will be saved, shows that they are elect before they believe.
Can God "intimately" know someone not in Christ? You have ultimately added the "elect" in Christ... prior to faith in Christ, something I thought Calvinism does not teach.npetreley said:Ask God. He doesn't say in the scriptures WHY He foreknows some and not others. All He says is those He foreknew (knew intimately), He also predestined. Those He foreknew is as opposed to those He did not foreknow, as in "I never knew you".
Exactly, so when it says he chose us in him (meaning Christ), it means he chose us to be saved.If you are in Christ you are saved.
But the text says that the choosing is before the foundation of the world, not the slaying. Furthermore, if Christ was slain before the foundation of the world, doesn’t that mean that Adam had to sin?Is not Christ the One slain from before the foundation of the world? If we are in Him, it seems self explanatory.
It didn’t make sense there either.See above reply.
Which text are you reading? The text I am looking at says we were chosen from before the foundation of the world. How is the Holy Spirit drawing people through faith in Christ before those people exist?I don't believe it's saying that. We are chosen based on the drawing of the Holy Spirit through faith in Christ. It's a simple reading of the text.
How is that relevant? That is not the topic here.Was Christ really slain before the foundation of the world or not?
No, he’s not. That is not in the text. He is speaking of the elect, in the places he was going about preaching and getting persecuted. Those places were both Jews and Gentiles, not the elect. Furthermore, Acts 9:35 declares that Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles. This is not a Jewish passage.Paul, as a believing jew (an Elect), had a special place in his heart for the jews. See Romans. He is speaking about Israel.
As I pointed out, this is because you don’t understand the subjunctive aspect in Greek. It is a statement of what will happen. What does it mean to be elect, if they only “might” get saved? If you understand the grammar, you see it is saying just what I am pointing out.Notice how you subtly added the above bolded, when the text states "may obtain". It's not a given as you imply, it's not "irresistable".
They are not randomly selected. They are elected according to God's gracious purposes, which he has not revealed to us other than "that we should be the praise of the glory of his grace." It is clearly not "all people" and foreknowledge is never said about something about the people. It is said to be people.Randomly selected people, or all people? Something about the people?
Is not Christ the One slain from before the foundation of the world? If we are in Him, it seems self explanatory.
No, it means in Christ we are chosen.Exactly, so when it says he chose us in him (meaning Christ), it means he chose us to be saved.
The Bible says both.But the text says that the choosing is before the foundation of the world, not the slaying.
It means God is omniscient.Furthermore, if Christ was slain before the foundation of the world, doesn’t that mean that Adam had to sin?
Then you are blind to it. I pray God reveals it to you...It didn’t make sense there either
2 Thess. 2:13Which text are you reading? The text I am looking at says we were chosen from before the foundation of the world. How is the Holy Spirit drawing people through faith in Christ before those people exist?
It is. I'm showing the reason why one is chosen "before the foundation of the world". We are "in" the Lamb slain before the foundation of the world.How is that relevant? That is not the topic here.
Because he was the apostle to the gentiles means he cannot have a special place in his heart for his people? Were churches not made up of jewish and gentile believers?No, he’s not. That is not in the text. He is speaking of the elect, in the places he was going about preaching and getting persecuted. Those places were both Jews and Gentiles, not the elect. Furthermore, Acts 9:35 declares that Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles. This is not a Jewish passage.
I don't think so, Larry. Where'd you get that?? We know that the soul is spiritual -- we know that man dies immediately upon sinning (you confess this or so you suggest by your question). Even cults say the soul only sleeps. And I am sure you believe that the soul goes to heaven upon death. Again -- where are you getting that information??Pastor Larry said:The “soul” is the only thing that dies. The body without the soul has no life. Sin should bring immediate physical death, but by God’s grace does not do so.
OK, you're agreeing that it happens BEFORE but that is not "chronological?" I can't imagine what you are saying.Yes, but not chronologically, as you seem to want to make it.
First -- it is EVERYTHING that is foreknown by God. Do you see by your response how Calvinism limits God's omniscience??But you can’t believe in God’s foreknowledge. Belief takes place in time. Furthermore when you see “foreknowledge” it is always people that are foreknown, not faith as your position requires.
No to that last. "Setting apart to salvation" is called JUSTIFICATION, Larry. Remember I cited Col 1:13 where once we are justified, God translates us into the kingdom of Christ? Traslates us for what? To be sanctified by the Holy Spirit. Sanctification is "phase 2" of salvation, "phase 3" being glorification, right?Sanctification simply means “setting apart.” It can refer to the growth in Christlikeness after salvation. It also refers to the settting apart for salvation such as in 2 Thess 2:13 and 1 Peter 1:2.
Oh, indeed it is! But don't think Calvin let is go. Nope, in his and Reform's hurry to create the "sacralist" kingdom of God on earth, they (like the Catholics), dispensed with the formalities of justification and made everyone who would be baptized and join the church the "elect."I would be interested to know what Calvinis ever said this. I have never heard it. This is a Catholic teaching, that confuses sanctification with justification.
As long as the "choosing" part is the believer's choosing, I could agree. But the Spirit doesn't "sanctify" anyone who is not already saved by faith. And He doesn't "set apart" anyone for salvation. He draws them. Just like Eleazer drew Rebecca, sight unseen, to wed Isaac. But He doesn't indwell the unjustified.yes, that’s exactly my point. These people were chosen for salvation, which comes through the setting apart of the Spirit for salvation and the belief in the truth for salvation. The choosing comes first, the setting apart comes second, and the faith comes third.
npetreley said:Ask God. He doesn't say in the scriptures WHY He foreknows some and not others. All He says is those He foreknew (knew intimately), He also predestined. Those He foreknew is as opposed to those He did not foreknow, as in "I never knew you".