Of course He uses "normative" means.
Why when the "supernatural" one (regeneration) is the only one that has the desired effect?
If, on the other hand, you mean to say that He can ONLY use some circumstance that can be described in very human terms of cause and effect, then you have neutered the Almighty God of the universe and rendered Him something other than His self-described "all powerful" and "all knowing" state.
If you read what I wrote you will see that I acknowledged that God COULD have simply changed Jonah's will by making his heart obedient, but that God CHOSE to work through normative means, thus showing just one example of God's choice to work through such means.
In what you describe above, it is STILL God doing the action to bring a rebellious individual, who may want nothing at all of God, to repentance!
True, but not through the irresistible "supernatural" means posed by your theological system. And even in the case of Jonah, where God is working to change the will of a believer we see God using such normative means to effectuate change. How can one be expected to believe that God would go to those ends to bring Jonah's heart into submission and then merely flip a regenerative supernatural switch on for those who hear Jonah's message so as to make them willing to believe and repent? I'm not saying God couldn't do that, just that it's never taught in scripture. God works through normative and resistible means.
He may sovereignly intervene to guarantee his messengers preach His truth (as in the case with the inspiration of scripture or the sending of a prophet), but that in no way proves he works through some supernatural regenerative means to guarantee certain members in the audience belief their message.
You do pray in accordance with the Holy Spirit, do you not? Or are your prayers the actions of your own heart? Just wondering, for why else would Jesus teach us to pray in accordance with God's divine will, expressed in heaven and on earth if that were something not possible to achieve?
Was Jesus' prayer to allow this cup to pass from him in accordance with the divine will, or a heartfelt expression of grief from someone living in real relationship and responding to real life circumstances? I think you over systematize some things. We converse with God like a son to a father or a friend to a friend, not like slave to a master who has predetermined all that you are going to say and all that is going to happen. There is no real relationship in that, IMO, regardless of how similar the inner workings might be to that finite understanding of infinite matters.
Now, Skandelon, you know better than this. I even gigged you on this same point in another thread the other day. Elect does not equal "saved." Elect equals "elect." "Saved" is a broad category that describes a number of related events, election being but one of them. Why do you insist on trotting out this defeated argument time after time?
As if the whole "so why do you Arminians pray for the lost" is a new one? Come now. My point in making this argument was to show the same false dichotomy can be set up against your system as well. I thought you were well versed enough in both camps to recognize the correlation. I should have made the connection clearer.
To the greater question above, we pray for lost souls because in God's economy, that is what HE commanded us to do. We are to pray for the elect, and pray that they might be made part of His kingdom. That is precisely because "elect" does not equal "saved" as expressed above.
And there you have it. We can certainly pray for the same reason, if no other. We both believe our prayers are a part of the redemptive process, whether effectually actuated by divine decree or permissively ordained by the same.
I know that you despise Calvinists,
You don't know that because I don't despise you or any one calling themselves Calvinistic. As I've testified numerous times, my brother and my best friend are both Calvinistic believers and I love them both dearly. I simply think they are mistaken regarding this one point of doctrine. Nothing more.
We CERTAINLY would not give man any glory for choosing God.
Nor would I and the fact you think I might only goes to show you've yet to truly understand the doctrine you appear to reject and despise.
I can't find a single place in the Scriptures that indicate that man should have that sort of glory, reserved only for God.
I agree.
I just believe that God gets more glory when He makes genuine appeals for reconciliation rather than fake ones.