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Just one example:One poster posed an interpretation that said, "[T]hat still future day when Messiah will come, judge the nations, Israel, and set up His Kingdom."
Is it possible that the term was used of historical events that have long since come to pass (Isa. 13 & Jer. 46)?
Just one example:
Proclaim ye this among the Gentiles; Prepare war, wake up the mighty men, let all the men of war draw near; let them come up: Beat your plowshares into swords, and your pruninghooks into spears: let the weak say, I am strong. Assemble yourselves, and come, all ye heathen, and gather yourselves together round about: thither cause thy mighty ones to come down, O LORD. Let the heathen be wakened, and come up to the valley of Jehoshaphat: for there will I sit to judge all the heathen round about. Put ye in the sickle, for the harvest is ripe: come, get you down; for the press is full, the fats overflow; for their wickedness is great. Multitudes, multitudes in the valley of decision: for the day of the LORD is near in the valley of decision. The sun and the moon shall be darkened, and the stars shall withdraw their shining. The LORD also shall roar out of Zion, and utter his voice from Jerusalem; and the heavens and the earth shall shake: but the LORD will be the hope of his people, and the strength of the children of Israel. So shall ye know that I am the LORD your God dwelling in Zion, my holy mountain: then shall Jerusalem be holy, and there shall no strangers pass through her any more. And it shall come to pass in that day, that the mountains shall drop down new wine, and the hills shall flow with milk, and all the rivers of Judah shall flow with waters, and a fountain shall come forth of the house of the LORD, and shall water the valley of Shittim. Egypt shall be a desolation, and Edom shall be a desolate wilderness, for the violence against the children of Judah, because they have shed innocent blood in their land. But Judah shall dwell for ever, and Jerusalem from generation to generation. For I will cleanse their blood that I have not cleansed: for the LORD dwelleth in Zion. (Joel 3:9-21)
In what time period in history, and especially now, has Judah been dwelling forever, and in Jerusalem forever and ever, and the Lord has cleansed her, for it is the Lord that dwells in Zion (Jerusalem). I don't see this today. Do you?
Neither have I, or do I see evidence of the other things mentioned in the same passage.
As I said in the other thread there are 380 references to the Day of the Lord, over 390 if you count the NT. The example I gave is not spiritual or allegorical, it is literal. I believe it will be literally fulfilled, as I believe most of them will be literally fulfilled. I have no reason not to take the Bible literally, unless it indicates otherwise. If it says that the Day of the Lord is to come, then I believe it will. If it uses figurative language to describe it, that is another thing. Who can describe an Almighty God. Of course there is symbolism when describing a God no one has ever seen. But that doesn't take away from the literalness of the promise that he is coming again, and that he is coming to set up his kingdom.Just curious...
When was the prophecy of Ezekiel fulfilled about Isreal being fully retored as a nation AND devoted to God?
When was the Messianic prophecies of a new world by Isaiah evr fulfilled literally?
UNLESS we are to interprete ALL of prophetic scriptures as being "spiritual"
As I said in the other thread there are 380 references to the Day of the Lord, over 390 if you count the NT. The example I gave is not spiritual or allegorical, it is literal. I believe it will be literally fulfilled, as I believe most of them will be literally fulfilled. I have no reason not to take the Bible literally, unless it indicates otherwise. If it says that the Day of the Lord is to come, then I believe it will. If it uses figurative language to describe it, that is another thing. Who can describe an Almighty God. Of course there is symbolism when describing a God no one has ever seen. But that doesn't take away from the literalness of the promise that he is coming again, and that he is coming to set up his kingdom.
Is it possible that the term was used of historical events that have long since come to pass (Isa. 13 & Jer. 46)?
And there are many that prophecy of one DAY still to come involving a physical appearing of the Lord Jesus Christ.Yes, read the context of Is. 13 it is quite clear. There have been many "Days of the Lord" throughout history.
And there are many that prophecy of one DAY still to come involving a physical appearing of the Lord Jesus Christ.
As I said previously most of the time the phrase "Day of the Lord" is used it is used:So we agree there have been many in the past.
One poster posed an interpretation that said, "[T]hat still future day when Messiah will come, judge the nations, Israel, and set up His Kingdom."
Is it possible that the term was used of historical events that have long since come to pass (Isa. 13 & Jer. 46)?
So now you are changing? YOu said "most" as if to imply not all. But before you eisegeted your definition of the DotL into Isa. 13. What about Jeremiah's use of DotL for Egypt and others? It has historical references.As I said previously most of the time the phrase "Day of the Lord" is used it is used:
1. in a historical context--has an immediate fulfillment.
2. with a partial but future context, as in the time of Christ (ex. Joel 2:28)
3. with a further future context, as in the Millennial Kingdom (Joel 2:28-32; Acts 2:16-21)
--The one reference referred both to the time of Christ and also looks to a future fulfillment not yet fulfilled.
One poster posed an interpretation that said, "[T]hat still future day when Messiah will come, judge the nations, Israel, and set up His Kingdom."
Is it possible that the term was used of historical events that have long since come to pass (Isa. 13 & Jer. 46)?
Did the sun turn into darkness; did the moon turn into blood? Did anything of that similarity happen?So now you are changing? YOu said "most" as if to imply not all. But before you eisegeted your definition of the DotL into Isa. 13. What about Jeremiah's use of DotL for Egypt and others? It has historical references.
A hermeneutical mistake would be to assume that all the "DotL's" are the same or refer to the same future event. I read Arnold Fruchtenbaum on this. It is not a convincing argument.
So are you saying that Joel 2:28ff. was not fulfilled in Acts 2?
Because you restrict the meaning to literal when it very likely is figural. If "this is that" which was prophesied in Joel 2, then Acts 2 is saying that the sun did turn to darkness and so on. It is figural language saying that an universe shattering event has just happened, the Spirit descended upon the people of God. The problem you must deal with is that Peter says that Joel 2 has been fulfilled in Acts 2.Did the sun turn into darkness; did the moon turn into blood? Did anything of that similarity happen?
No, that is an event that is still future.
Because you restrict the meaning to literal when it very likely is figural. If "this is that" which was prophesied in Joel 2, then Acts 2 is saying that the sun did turn to darkness and so on. It is figural language saying that an universe shattering event has just happened, the Spirit descended upon the people of God. The problem you must deal with is that Peter says that Joel 2 has been fulfilled in Acts 2.
No, there is more than one part to the prophecy. That is very obvious. Certain elements of that prophecy have not happened yet, and that is what you do now want to admit because you have made up your mind that certain events cannot happen; they have already happened. Therefore they cannot happen according to you. You have already made up your mind. Nothing can change it; not even a proper hermeneutical approach to Scripture.They see it but they can't accept it. :BangHead:
No, there is more than one part to the prophecy. That is very obvious. Certain elements of that prophecy have not happened yet, and that is what you do now want to admit because you have made up your mind that certain events cannot happen; they have already happened. Therefore they cannot happen according to you. You have already made up your mind. Nothing can change it; not even a proper hermeneutical approach to Scripture.
Jesus said: "I am the door.":laugh::laugh::laugh: My hermeneutical approach is to actually believe what they say. So when an inspired writer says "this is that", I actually believe him.
Your approach seems to run all prophecy statements through Tim LaHaye and ignore what inspired writers actually say.
You have lost the right to claim you take the Bible literally.
And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:
If forced to I'll look them up but I believe you will find that, in the last days or in the ladder days began with the resurrection of Christ and end with the end of the age at his return which will also be when the sun is darkened and the moon turned to blood and so forth. The Spirit of God began to be poured out on the firstfruits of the Spirit on Pentecost following the resurrection and will be upon all flesh later.