But this is not Jesus returning as king. No, the Jews were scattered in 70 A.D.. But when Jesus returns he will restore the kingdom.
I showed you from Dan. 2 when the Kingdom would come. No response from you.
I showed you the words of John the Baptist concerning the coming of the Kingdom where he said "the time is fulfilled". You also ignored it. Why do you refuse to deal with those passages? I can only assume you have no answer.
So, your problem is you cannot discern the scriptures.
:laugh::laugh:
You are combining the destruction of Jerusalem with Jesus second coming as one event. They are not.
Mar 13:2 And Jesus answering said unto him, Seest thou these great buildings? there shall not be left one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down.
Mar 13:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives over against the temple, Peter and James and John and Andrew asked him privately,
Mar 13:4 Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign when all these things shall be fulfilled?
Trust me, when Jesus comes and restores his kingdom, the whole wide world will know it. It will be the greatest event in the history of mankind, the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. will pale in comparison
Trust you??? You won't even answer simple questions.
Matt 24:29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the
Jesus said immediately after the great tribulation that the sun will be darkened, the moon will not give light, and the stars fall from heaven. You may not believe that literal, I do.
I'll ask again a question you keep refusing to answer. Isaiah 13 describes the destruction of the Babylonians by the Medes. A historical event. It is described as such:
Isa 13:10 For the stars of heaven and the constellations thereof shall not give their light: the sun shall be darkened in his going forth, and the moon shall not cause her light to shine.
I could site numerous other such examples of this apocalytic language being used to describe the fall of nations and empires. The question to you, again, is why when we see the NT Prophets use this exact language are we to assume they use it in a different manner than the OT Prophets did? It is up to you to prove it should be taken literal when in the Hebrew mind it never had been used that way in the past. Will you answer or will you ignore it yet again?
You haven't proved a thing. If Jesus would have came as king in 70 A.D., every man, woman, and child on earth would know it
So your saying Jesus isn't King. He rules over nothing.
What do you do with Matthew 16:27?
What do you do with Matthew 26:64?
What do you do with Matthew 10:23?
What do you do with James 5:7-8?
What about Daniel 2?
What about Matthew 23?
What do the "like the days of Noah" refer to?
Why go to the Mountains if the entire world is going to be destroyed?
What about Micah 1?
What does 1 Peter 4:7 mean?
Why do the writers of the NT say they were living in the last days?
Why is the Greek unnecessary?
I can't even ask if you know what "parousia" means because of your KJVonlyism.
These and many other questions you have ignored. So if you cannot answer the simplest of questions then why should anyone trust you?
One of us has addressed these and one of us has run from these. I'll let the readers determine who has done what.