Originally posted by BobRyan:
Becuase you DON'T address the details IN Romans 2 though they are repeatedly quoted here.
Actually I have addressed details specifically in sufficient force to disprove your misuse of the passage.
Every time you quote the whole thing, you quote the part where we are told that the "goodness of God" leads us to repentance. I have explained that no other goodness can be recognized in man outside of this relationship. I have pointed out that God's goodness leads... it isn't in response to man's request.
You keep accusing ME of avoidance but you are the one who isn't addressing my points. I am yours.
In the case of the two thieves - you "assume" that God arbitrarily MADE the one repent (you merely ASSUME Calvinism rather than PROVING your point).
I have not assumed anything. In fact, I said that God favored both of the thieves though one believed and the other didn't. Would I assume that about the repenting thief? Yes. But not based on the passage in question. I am willing to just deal with that passage and its implications since that is all that is needed to disprove YOUR assumptions.
You then use your own ASSUMED point as your "salient" point of your argument. A circular argument perfected my friend.
Nope. I did not address the notion of why the thieves chose as they did. I simply said that God showed partiality to the one who believed and in truth to the one who didn't believe also.
Thousands of people died that day. Only these two are recorded to have had a personal testimony from Jesus Himself. There is no way that you can define that as "impartial".
OTOH, Many if not most of those who died that day faced judgment according to their deeds... and were found lacking by the impartial judge of men's deeds.
The text does NOT SAY "God MADE the one repent but had no concern for the other" --
Didn't say that it did though did I? You know, it is amazing how often arminians feel compelled to put words in the mouths of calvinists so they can set up straw man arguments.
so you "insert that idea" and then use your own eisegesis as PROOF that God "partially PICKED the one over the other".
Nope. I didn't insert that idea. You did as a straw man.
Two dying men by the providence of God were in the presence of Christ as He died. Hundreds or thousands of others died that day with no such opportunity. That is partiality. But it isn't limited to just that day. How about the day before? The day after? A year later? A year before?
By God's providence and according to His will alone, He showed "partiality" to two men. This is a simple, direct from the text, unassailable fact.
But in the ACTUAL BIBLE - the point made in Romans 2 would be that IN THE CONTEXT of the mercy of God that calls ALL men EVERYWHERE to REPENT - the ONE thief reponds and shows DEEDS that were appropriate to repentance while the other does not.
Whose goodness led him to repentance? Was it his own goodness that led to the deed?
How shocking that Romans 2 would work there - eh?
Not to a calvinist.