• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Where Arminians should critique Calvinism

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
Calvinists please note.

When your entire argument is "BASED" on the notion that you can ignore the DETAILS of Romans 2 and just "gloss over them" to spin another story - ALL I have to do is post the chapter's texts "again" and you are debunked "again".

Pick another tactic.

In Christ,

Bob
When your entire argument is based on distorting both the context of the passage and its context as compared to the rest of scripture.... all we have to do is point out what is actually said and what you have assumed.

Pick another tactic.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Rom 2
5 But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,
6 who WILL RENDER TO EACH PERSON ACCORDING TO HIS DEEDS:


7 to those who by perseverance in doing good seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life;
8 but to those who are selfishly ambitious and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, wrath and indignation.

9 There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek,

10 but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.

11 For there is no partiality with God.
12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;
13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
-------------------------------------
quote - Bob said --

The "text says" that the evaluation is done based on deeds.

(and so ALL EXAMPLES given IN THE TEXT above are of contrasting DEEDS)

Did you notice that "in the text"??
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ScottJ said --

Nope.
Well - that pretty much says it all!!

In Christ,

Bob
</font>[/QUOTE]Typical...

Of course if anyone checks out my response they will see that I didn't just declare "nope" and stop.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />ScottJ
The text says that deeds will be evaluated. It does not say that these deeds result from the goodness of man that causes him to repent toward God... in fact it says exactly the opposite.
Your attempts to obfuscate AWAY from the details IN Romans 2 are not working. IN Romans 2 it is EXPLICITLY a sequence of CONTRASTS between deeds of ONE type vs another. </font>[/QUOTE]Didn't obfuscate anything. I stated a simple fact. The text says that the goodness of God leads us to repentance. Of course you would rather not deal with that since it proves my contention that you are ignoring context to facilitate your misuse of the passage.

God only accepts those who are repentant... no deed done by one acting on their own "goodness" is pleasing to God as it gives glory to them- not Him.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Paul here identifies the “impartial” basis of God’s judgment.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />ScottJ said --
Judgment against men as sinners... yes. But if partiality means what you suggest- "fairness" then everyone should remain lost
Indeed - many Calvinists try to "Spin" Romans 2 "AS IF" the Gospel Judgment IT HIGHLIGHTS in Romans 2 CAN only result in ALL LOST. But the TEXT is EXPLICIT in showing DEEDS that are CONTRASTED with rewards that are appropriate to each contrast.

How devastating to your point.</font>[/QUOTE]
Not at all. Rewards only pertain to the saved. This passage doesn't deal with why they accept Christ except when it says the goodness of God leads us to repentance.

Shall I quote Romans 2 "again"??

I don't know. Do you think you are ready to accept the implications of the context?
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:


It talks about those who have NO access to the Word of God and the fact that they may very well BE SAVED while those WITH the Word are lost since some of those WITHOUT it - SHOW the New Covenant promise fulfilled IN THEIR HEART - of the LAW written on their heart. That is to say they are SHOWN to be subjects of the Holy Spirit.

Wow. At least you have come up with a solution... not a valid one but it does answer a question.

You share this in common with hyper-calvinists... you know that right? They believe that God can elect people without them hearing the gospel very similar to you.

Of course both you and they are wrong according to Romans 10 and other scriptures that declare that a response to the gospel of Jesus Christ is necessary.

BTW, notice you you have to change the word "Law" to "Word" to make you explanation stick... that is thus saith Bob, not thus saith the Lord.

You aren't an inspired prophet like White are you? :rolleyes:
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by BobRyan:

quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ScottJ
If two men having committed equal severity of sin die with one being saved just before death and the other being lost, are you trying to say that God is being impartial by judging one righteous and the other an object of wrath?

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I am saying that EVEN for the theif on the cross who repents at the LAST minute - there is SEEN to be a DIFFERENCE between him and the one who continues to curse and condemn others.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />ScottJ
That is partiality.

There may have been hundreds hanging on a cross that day in Judea. Why did God choose to put Christ beside this one fellow? The guy didn't ask for it and certainly didn't deserve it.
You missed the point entirely.

The Calvinist argument was that Christ is wrong in Matt 7 where HE claims that the GOOD tree will be SEEN to show GOOD fruit and by their fruits you shall know them.

The proof is given EVEN with the LAST HOUR conversion as stated above.

You simply attempt to misdirect and obfuscate away from the point AS IF the only way to have a last minute conversion is to have Christ literally crucified next to you.

Misdirection and obfuscation -- at least you do it "consistently".

In Christ,

Bob
</font>[/QUOTE]No Bob. You are evading the issue and it seems to be by design.

God was partial to the two thieves beside Jesus. One repented the other didn't.... hundreds of others didn't get the chance... therefore God must have been partial against them by your interpretation.

I wish you would deal directly with my responses rather than things I didn't say.
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:

quote - Bob said --

The "text says" that the evaluation is done based on deeds.

(and so ALL EXAMPLES given IN THE TEXT above are of contrasting DEEDS)

Did you notice that "in the text"??
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> ScottJ said --

Nope.
Well - that pretty much says it all!!

In Christ,

Bob
</font>[/QUOTE]Of course this is really what I said:
Nope. That is your interpretation facilitated by plucking a phrase out of the context of the passage and also out of the context of the whole of scripture.

Are you saying that evaluation for purpose of salvation is based on "deeds" emanating from man's goodness based on this text? It would seem so.

The text says that deeds will be evaluated. It does not say that these deeds result from the goodness of man that causes him to repent toward God... in fact it says exactly the opposite.
Of course by pretending that I gave an unsupported answer, Bob can start an argument rather than having to answer the points of my response.
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
I pointed to the specifics IN the text - "you know the ones you refuse to quote in your responses"

Here the "TEXT" is again for your avoiding pleasure.

Let's continue letting the scripture speak for itself;

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />
Rom2:
5 but because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,
6 who will render to each person according to his deeds:
Paul is adamant that there is a future judgment “according to deeds”. Paul here identifies the “impartial” basis of God’s judgment. Instead of His simply “arbitrarily selecting” some to favor and others to ignore – ALL are judged according to deeds IN the context of the “call to repentance” of vs 4.

He speaks of this again in 2Cor 5 talking about future judgment and judged based on deeds “whether they be good or evil”.

Notice that in these first 6 verses we have an Arminian-style motivation - not to engage in man's faulty judgment of others. And there is no sense or expectation that this sin is not to stop or just to continue because we are totally depraved. Rather the argument is to stop.

Further - if this chapter is only about the failing case, only about the wrath of God - then we will not find success, mercy, reward but only condemnation, wrath, punishment. Let's now let the text reveal which way it will go.
Rom 2:
7 to those who by perseverance in doing good seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life;
Here is the “succeeding case” explicitly listed by Paul. And it is in the context of God - leading to repentance. We also have the people of God - persevering, doing good and seeking glory and honor. What is the result? The text says immortality and eternal life.

Some have supposed that a “judgment” that is impartial as Paul points to in vs 6 and 11 must “only have failing cases”. But Paul shows in vs 7 that such is not the case. The “Good News” does not require God to arbitrarily be “partial to the FEW of Matt 7” as some have supposed. Rather it allows for God to be “impartial” and to SAVE mankind on that basis!

Rom2:
8 but to those who are selfishly ambitious and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, wrath and indignation.
The “Failing case”: Clearly a contrast is being introduced "but to those who are selfish" - contrasted with what? Those who repent, seek eternal glory and honor and persevere. Persevere in what?

You must be on the right path to be approved in perseveringly staying on the right path. It is obvious I know, but worth noting.

So God has now contrasted the good and the wicked, those who persevere on the right path and those who are not even on it.

We already know that in the judgment there are two classes - those that receive immortality and those that do not. If it is not clear to us by now that this chapter is dealing with both classes - we need to engage in some remedial reading comprehension.
Rom2:
9 there will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek,
10 but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.
11 for there is no partiality with God.
At this point Paul seems to ask that we "be not deceived" into thinking that some can do evil but find "preferred treatment" because God will “favor the few over the many”. He does not let us suppose that others are lost for doing evil while the “favored” ones do evil and go to heaven. Rather Paul argues that God has called all to repentance and all must comply - there will be no preferred treatment based on status (or magic phrase) allowing some of the rebels in.

But basic to Paul’s solution is the affirmation that God is NOT partial when it comes to the Gospel – when it comes to Salvation. That means that He is NOT favoring the “few” of Matt 7 over the “many” so that He can save the “Few”. Rather – impartiality demands that ALL be given the same salvation-sequence. ALL have the Holy Spirit convicting of sin and righteousness and judgment (John 16:8) and ALL have the Drawing of God (John 12:32) and ALL have the Lord Jesus Christ standing at the door and knocking – and ALL have the SAME promise of the New Covenant that “changes the TREE itself” Matt 7 and writes the Law of God on the heart (Heb 8).

Rather than simply “favoring some over others” the system defined above is “impartial” as God HIMSELF is “Impartial”. This Gospel truth was a huge problem for the Jews and is a big problem for Calvinism.
</font>[/QUOTE]
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
We "see" BOTH the SUCCESSFUL and the failing cases that RESULT from that IMPARTIAL judgment of ALL.

It is impossible to "ignore the details IN THE TEXT" as you are doing Scott - without AVOIDING the text altogether as you are SEEN to do in each of your posts.

How can this not be obvious to you? I don't see how you would view that tactic as something that might work here.

In Christ,

Bob
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Bob said
You missed the point entirely.

The Calvinist argument (IN FACT YOUR ARGUMENT) was that Christ is wrong in Matt 7 where HE claims that the GOOD tree will be SEEN to show GOOD fruit and by their fruits you shall know them.

The proof is given EVEN with the LAST HOUR conversion as stated above.

You simply attempt to misdirect and obfuscate away from the point AS IF the only way to have a last minute conversion is to have Christ literally crucified next to you.

Misdirection and obfuscation -- at least you do it "consistently".
ScottJ said

No Bob. You are evading the issue
As I said Scott YOU are the one that posted the challenge about fruits NOT BEING seen and no impartial judgment being possible for someone with a last minute conversion.

Do you want to see your OWN post that went to that point "again"??

quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ScottJ
If two men having committed equal severity of sin die with one being saved just before death and the other being lost, are you trying to say that God is being impartial by judging one righteous and the other an object of wrath?

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Interesting that you never quote THIS (as often as I post it FOR you) and you don't want to quote the Romans 2 "details" that I have posted here SHOWING your errors - either.

You are simply avoiding inconvenient "Details".

In Christ,

Bob
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
Originally posted by BobRyan:
Your attempts to obfuscate AWAY from the details IN Romans 2 are not working. IN Romans 2 it is EXPLICITLY a sequence of CONTRASTS between deeds of ONE type vs another.

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Rom 2
5 But because of your stubbornness and unrepentant heart you are storing up wrath for yourself in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God,
6 who WILL RENDER TO EACH PERSON ACCORDING TO HIS DEEDS:


7 to those who by perseverance in doing good seek for glory and honor and immortality, eternal life;
8 but to those who are selfishly ambitious and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, wrath and indignation.

9 There will be tribulation and distress for every soul of man who does evil, of the Jew first and also of the Greek,

10 but glory and honor and peace to everyone who does good, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.

11 For there is no partiality with God.
12 For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law;
13 for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
The "text says" that the evaluation is done based on deeds.

(and so ALL EXAMPLES given IN THE TEXT above are of contrasting DEEDS) </font>[/QUOTE]I just get to keep REPOSTING the Romans 2 "details" that you can not bring yourself to quote or address.

You are making this too easy.

In Christ,

Bob
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
God was partial to the two thieves beside Jesus. One repented the other didn't.... hundreds of others didn't get the chance... therefore God must have been partial against them by your interpretation.

I wish you would deal directly with my responses rather than things I didn't say.
Because you DON't follow up on your OWN question that IS given a response.

Becuase you DON'T address the details IN Romans 2 though they are repeatedly quoted here.

...

But if avoidance is your only tactic - ok I will respond to the new direction you want to go -- leaving Romans 2 behind entirely "apparently".

You provide your own circular argument above charging the OPPOSITE of what we SEE claimed in Romans 2 - when you deal with the Thief on the cross.

In the case of the two thieves - you "assume" that God arbitrarily MADE the one repent (you merely ASSUME Calvinism rather than PROVING your point). You then use your own ASSUMED point as your "salient" point of your argument. A circular argument perfected my friend.

The text does NOT SAY "God MADE the one repent but had no concern for the other" -- so you "insert that idea" and then use your own eisegesis as PROOF that God "partially PICKED the one over the other".

But in the ACTUAL BIBLE - the point made in Romans 2 would be that IN THE CONTEXT of the mercy of God that calls ALL men EVERYWHERE to REPENT - the ONE thief reponds and shows DEEDS that were appropriate to repentance while the other does not.

How shocking that Romans 2 would work there - eh?

In Christ,

Bob
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
I pointed to the specifics IN the text - "you know the ones you refuse to quote in your responses"
I can read what the text says and have no reason to take a pen knife to it to make it fit my preconceptions as you do.

You want to expand the context of "impartial" beyond all reasonable limits. That shows desperation on your part to find a "proof" against calvinism.

If you want to believe in a system of merit for salvation then by all means just say so and I will gladly leave you alone. However, if you want to show any respect to the concept of grace in your interpretation of Romans 2, you are going to have to stop ignoring the fact that our repentance is caused by the goodness of God, not our goodness. This repentance is prerequisite for "doing" anything worthy of God's favor and reward.
 

Hardsheller

Active Member
Site Supporter
This could go on ad infinitum!
laugh.gif
 

Scott J

Active Member
Site Supporter
Originally posted by BobRyan:
Becuase you DON'T address the details IN Romans 2 though they are repeatedly quoted here.
Actually I have addressed details specifically in sufficient force to disprove your misuse of the passage.

Every time you quote the whole thing, you quote the part where we are told that the "goodness of God" leads us to repentance. I have explained that no other goodness can be recognized in man outside of this relationship. I have pointed out that God's goodness leads... it isn't in response to man's request.

You keep accusing ME of avoidance but you are the one who isn't addressing my points. I am yours.

In the case of the two thieves - you "assume" that God arbitrarily MADE the one repent (you merely ASSUME Calvinism rather than PROVING your point).
I have not assumed anything. In fact, I said that God favored both of the thieves though one believed and the other didn't. Would I assume that about the repenting thief? Yes. But not based on the passage in question. I am willing to just deal with that passage and its implications since that is all that is needed to disprove YOUR assumptions.
You then use your own ASSUMED point as your "salient" point of your argument. A circular argument perfected my friend.
Nope. I did not address the notion of why the thieves chose as they did. I simply said that God showed partiality to the one who believed and in truth to the one who didn't believe also.

Thousands of people died that day. Only these two are recorded to have had a personal testimony from Jesus Himself. There is no way that you can define that as "impartial".

OTOH, Many if not most of those who died that day faced judgment according to their deeds... and were found lacking by the impartial judge of men's deeds.

The text does NOT SAY "God MADE the one repent but had no concern for the other" --
Didn't say that it did though did I? You know, it is amazing how often arminians feel compelled to put words in the mouths of calvinists so they can set up straw man arguments.

so you "insert that idea" and then use your own eisegesis as PROOF that God "partially PICKED the one over the other".
Nope. I didn't insert that idea. You did as a straw man.

Two dying men by the providence of God were in the presence of Christ as He died. Hundreds or thousands of others died that day with no such opportunity. That is partiality. But it isn't limited to just that day. How about the day before? The day after? A year later? A year before?

By God's providence and according to His will alone, He showed "partiality" to two men. This is a simple, direct from the text, unassailable fact.

But in the ACTUAL BIBLE - the point made in Romans 2 would be that IN THE CONTEXT of the mercy of God that calls ALL men EVERYWHERE to REPENT - the ONE thief reponds and shows DEEDS that were appropriate to repentance while the other does not.
Whose goodness led him to repentance? Was it his own goodness that led to the deed?

How shocking that Romans 2 would work there - eh?

Not to a calvinist.
 

BobRyan

Well-Known Member
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Originally posted by BobRyan:
I pointed to the specifics IN the text - "you know the ones you refuse to quote in your responses"
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ScottJ said
I can read what the text says and have no reason to take a pen knife to it to make it fit my ...

&lt; obligatory textless, pointless rant deleted&gt;
I realize that you and some of the other Calvinist posters see no point in actually noticing the disconfirming and devastating details in Romans 2 (that I keep quoting) so you don't quote them, don't exegete them and don't respond to the devastating case they make against Calvinism - when the SHOW the context for God's impartiality.

I also realize that nothing would please you more than to ingore that chapter all day long - as you have been doing.

My only point here was to show that this "calvinism-hides-from-the-Bible" tactic of yours is actually "proving" that Calvinism "needs" to dodge the chapter.

Exegesis may be foreign to you when it comes to chapters like Romans 2 -- but it has always been the friend of the Arminian POV.

Enjoy your model of Bible avoidance on the topic of God's being "impartial" and that impartial judgement resulting in the ROMANS 2 DETAILS of some saved and some lost.

In Christ,

Bob
 
Top