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I don't know about that. Believing in a literal hell or not is a litmus test for Christianity.Originally posted by shannonL:
Hell is just as horrible as heaven is heavenly. Why would God send his only Son to die for lost souls if they weren't faced with such damnation?
annhilation minimizes the signifigance of salvation in my opinion.
Shannon, according to Calvinists God didn't send His Son to die for lost souls. God hates lost souls and those He predertimines to save, He never hates. He loved them from eternity past.
Some people who post here treat the Bible like it is a "doctrinal buffet" just pick what you want to believe is true and wrap the rest of it up in symbolism, allegory, metaphors..etc...
Doesn't EVERYONE do that?
I'm not implying this to anyone on this board but, there are alot of folk I believe, who don't believe hell is literal are going to give a first hand report about it when its all said and done.
Parables aren't necessarily historical. It may even be a story that was told before Jesus' time but was given a new spin by him. There's lots of ways the story conflicts with other teachings about the afterlife, from the name of the place the righteous go to (Abraham's bosom), the visibility of the righteous dead from hell, and the communication between the righteous and wicked. I don't think the point of the story was to give us physical details about the afterlife.Originally posted by icthus:
Firstly, I see there is some who suppose that the account in Luke’s Gospel on the Rich Man and Lazurus, is only a parable. For the sake of argument, let us suppose that it is. How does this change anything?
From hell and its consequences. Disagreement about what those consequences entail, whether it's disagreement about the height or literalness of the flames or the ultimate result of them, does not change that fact.Secondly, those who hold to the third view, of “Conditional Immortality”, or, “Annhilationism”, are, in my opinion, reducing the nature of the Gospel, and undermining the entire process of Salvation. For, it must be asked. If Salvation in Jesus Christ is not the saving from hell and its consequences, where its consequences are seen as “eternal conscious suffering”, then from what exactly did Christ come to save us from?
If the soul of man is immortal, what was the purpose of the Tree of Life in Eden?If the soul of man is not “immortal”, and only those who believe in Jesus Christ are said to be so, then what is the purpose of all the warnings in Scripture, about suffering, pain, torment, etc, all spoken in eternal future language?
First, Paul does not talk about "if there is no Resurrection for those who are without Christ", but rather about "if there is no resurrection for those who have fallen asleep". Paul is not as specific as you want him to be. Second, I do believe all the dead will be raised, both the wicked and the righteous, so your problem does not apply to my view. My view is that eternal life is only given to the righteous, while the wicked, after judgement, will be punished and destroyed.Paul’s argument against those who doubt in a literal Resurrection of the body, in 1 Corinthians 15, says, if there is no Resurrection for those who are without Christ, then, “what advantageth it me, if the dead rise not? Let us eat and drink; for tomorrow we die” (15:32).
As I said in my first post, "About the only verse that gives me second thoughts about the eventual destruction of the wicked is Matthew 25:26 [sic]: 'Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.' But even here, destruction is a punishment with eternal consequences: due to this punishment, the wicked will not exist for all of eternity."It is very evident from the words of Christ Himself, that the soul of man has to be “immortal”, for He speaks of “eternal life” and “eternal punishment” in the same verse in Matthew 25:46.
That interpretation is inconsistent with the prophecy Mark is quoting from. If you read Isaiah 66:24, you will see that it is dead bodies that are being devoured by worms, not living bodies whose metaphorical "worm" is still alive. Also, if "their worm" in Isaiah 66:24 refers to their body, "their fire" must also refer to some part of them. In other words, this interpretation completely allegorizes not only the worms, but also the flames!Jesus again speaks of “Gehenna”, as being a place, “where their worm dies not, and the fire is not extinguished” (Mark 9:44,26,48). It has wrongly been though that Jesus is referring to literal “worms” that live forever and “torment” the wicked. However, the exact phrase is “their worm” (personal pronoun), that is, the “body” of the wicked as not being “consumed” by the fires of hell.
If that interpretation were correct, then Sodom and Gomorrah really didn't serve as a very good example, since none of Jude's readers would be able to see what he was talking about. If would be as circular as saying that the bliss my grandmother is currently experiencing in heaven serves as an example of eternal life. On the other hand, if Jude was referring to the historical destruction of these cities (a destruction with effects that carry into the present, since the cities were never rebuilt), then it would be a powerful example of what eternal fire is.In Jude 7, we read of the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah, where we are told, “…are set forth for an example, suffering vengeance of eternal fire” Note, that the Greek for “suffering” is “huperchousai”, literally, “undergoing”, which is in the “present tense”, indictaing, that at the time of Jude writing, this example of “suffering” was still “present”, still “going on”. The language used cannot be said to support any notion of “Annhilationism”.
An interesting claim, since the only passage raised to support annihilationism in Scripture that you addressed was Jude 1:7. Instead, you focused on the rich man and Lazarus, details of John's vision in Revelation, Matthew 25:46, and a misinterpretation of Mark 9 that, if true, would turn the worms and flames of hell into mere euphemisms for human beings.No “Annhilationism” in Scripture!